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Timothew said:Having no beginning and no end is the definition of eternal!
It looks like you are just unable to ever admit you are wrong.
He said "That's just your version". If he said that I don't interpret it the same way as the guy next door, that another thing. Why should I assume the guy next door got it right? Or why assume that I'm wrong, when I quote the bible verbatum? The ESV's translation is the same as "my version." Is Montalban saying the translation committee for the ESV also got it wrong, and my neighbor got it correct?It actually sounds like Mont is saying you aren't interpreting it along with other verses as the "Christian next door" does. Of course, I'm not him so I can't vouch 100% accuracy.
Then I asked you what your verson said in Luke 13:3, but you never answered.
He said "That's just your version". If he said that I don't interpret it the same way as the guy next door, that another thing. Why should I assume the guy next door got it right? Or why assume that I'm wrong, when I quote the bible verbatum? The ESV's translation is the same as "my version." Is Montalban saying the translation committee for the ESV also got it wrong, and my neighbor got it correct?

Yes I did. Post 339.You have not shown me that I said that this verse is only in your bible.
Yes I did. Post 339.

Actually the context of eternal and an understanding of nothing is what refutes you.
Eternal is only for things that exist either physically or superphysically (er natural). Nothing is not a created thing, it is the lack of something. The lack of something can be eternal, however it may also be ignored as nonexistent, ergo pointless if not negligible. So... I guess if death is the state of a soul becoming nonexistent, it's you becoming pointless and negligible? Basically an emotional hell? Meh.
Mat 13:28 He said to them, a man1, an enemy has done this thing. And the servants said to him, Do you wish then that we go and gather2 them up?This is indeed what nothingness is.
He said "That's just your version". If he said that I don't interpret it the same way as the guy next door, that another thing. Why should I assume the guy next door got it right? Or why assume that I'm wrong, when I quote the bible verbatum? The ESV's translation is the same as "my version." Is Montalban saying the translation committee for the ESV also got it wrong, and my neighbor got it correct?
How about 'the commandments of the Lord'?
1 Corinthians 14:37-38 (KJV)
37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord. 38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
This is indeed what nothingness is.
I have tried also reasoning with Objectivists. They come to a conclusion and because they've 'reasoned' their way to that conclusion it must be reasonable and there's no shifting them from that belief.
I wasn't translating or interpreting Luke 13:3.You are confusing interpretation with translation. They are in fact 2 entirely different things!
Translation is not interpretation. An interpretation, even if correct, is still not a faithful translation. Interpretation is the province of the exegete; it is the realm of the expositor, not that of the translator. We cannot judge the sense of what is said until we know what is said; yet we cannot express what is said in the original unless we possess an essentially equivalent expression thereof in translated form. We cannot determine the correct sense of a word apart from a valid basis upon which to form such a conclusion. Translation must come first; only then may interpretation follow.
Here is a great site that explain the difference ~ and how important it is NOT to confuse the terms:
Bible Translation/Interpretation - Do You Know the Difference?
Blessings to you!
No. Nothingness isn't forever. It's nothing. It's neither never, nor forever.
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Seems like forever!I must disagree with you based on how the term "eternal" and "forever" are used so often.
Then you only partly disagree with me... on the punishmentI do believe consequences of death are "eternal". It means there will never again be a resurrection. The punishment is "forever", not the punishing.
I disagree with the concept of 'scriptures teaching'. They say something but often the 'teaching' comes from peopel's reading of them and interpreting what they think scripture says.I realize it's hard to catchup on what's been discussed in the past when joining a thread, but I'll repost what I said earlier for your evaluation:
"Everlasting punishment" (Matt. 25:46) is not endless punishing, nor is "everlasting destruction" (2 Thess. 1:9) endless destroying, any more than "eternal salvation" (Heb. 5:9) is endless saving, or "eternal judgment" (Heb. 6:2) is endless judging, or eternal redemption (Heb 9:12) is endless redeeming, or everlasting gospel (Rev 14:6) is endless preaching. The "eternal" pertains to the result, and not to the process. The results or consequences are eternally irrevocable. And of course, it is worthy of mention that the words everlasting and eternal in the New Testament are both translated from the same Greek word, aionos.
Scriptures do not teach endless burning of the ungodly. Only the righteous will dwell in everlasting burnings (Isa. 33:14-16) and survive.
I'm not sure how you get NON-destruction from this verse.And these will pay the penalty of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His power," (2 Thess. 1:9).
Once something is destroyed, and providing it is not repaired, it remains destroyed for eternity.I'm not sure how you get NON-destruction from this verse.