Good. Concentrate on the Hebrew, because even in the Greek text, the underlying Hebrew becomes evident in many places.I have recently began to study the Greek and Hebrew words and definitions. I agree there are many bad translations from the original text to English.
Jesus Christ gives the best definition for "repent", when He says in Luke 24:47, "Repentance FOR the forgiveness of sins..." (best Greek textual evidence)., where the Greek preposition, εἰς, has the meaning, "towards". Repentance results in the forgiveness of sins, without which, no sinner can be saved!
Except HE was not speaking Greek. He would have been using the Aramaic equivalent to Teshuva, (repentance) which simply means to turn around and go back the way you came.
Good. Concentrate on the Hebrew, because even in the Greek text, the underlying Hebrew becomes evident in many places.
I have recently began to study the Greek and Hebrew words and definitions. I agree there are many bad translations from the original text to English.
If I’m not mistaken the word repent in the NT is translated from the Greek word metanoia meaning a change of mind or way of life or a change in direction or turning away from something.
Mark 1:15, God Incarnate, the Lord Jesus Christ, says very clearly to those who will listen, "REPENT and BELIEVE in the Gospel". And, in Luke 24:47, "REPENTANCE for the FORGIVENESS of sins is to be preached...". Acts 2:38, "REPENT", etc, etc. Are your arguing that the Lord Jesus is wrong?
No I wasn't arguing that at all. I wasn't even arguing period I just asked why it doesn't fit with the rest of the Bible. That's all. Especially when Jesus said he won't lose a single believer in John 6:37-40. I believe repentance to be a requirement for salvation. I was just asking HOW.
He died under the Mosaic Covenant, not the New Covenant. His example bears no impact on the New Covenant believer.
He died under the Mosaic Covenant, not the New Covenant. His example bears no impact on the New Covenant believer.
"Actually the thief was able to do works". the ONLY "works" that the thief of the cross DID, was his repenting of his sins, and acknowledgement of Jesus Christ as Lord and Saviour.
Hebrews 8:13, says, "In speaking of a New Covenant, he makes the First one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away"
And I would say that "what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away" refers to the period between the crucifixion and the destruction of the temple in 70AD.
Until the temple was destroyed, it was still possible for Jews to follow the Mosaic Law in atoning for sin through the blood of sacrifices. After the destruction of the temple, the only blood by which sin can be atoned is the blood of Jesus.
Of course I can say that. The writers of the NT, no matter which language they actually wrote in, were native Hebrew and/or Aramaic speakers and thinkers. Even the best NT Greek scholars will tell you the grammar and word order is better suited to someone doing a word by word translation from Aramaic rather than someone fluent in Greek.You cannot say "Concentrate on the Hebrew", when studying the NT, because it was originally written in Greek, not Hebrew, with the possibility of Matthew.
And resurrected AFTER the thief died.Not sure about that. Christ died before the thief.
Maybe. We are given no such biblical information.And I would say that "what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away" refers to the period between the crucifixion and the destruction of the temple in 70AD.
I have no idea how that impacts anyone who died under the Mosaic covenant.Hebrews 8:13, says, "In speaking of a New Covenant, he makes the First one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away"
Of course I can say that. The writers of the NT, no matter which language they actually wrote in, were native Hebrew and/or Aramaic speakers and thinkers. Even the best NT Greek scholars will tell you the grammar and word order is better suited to someone doing a word by word translation from Aramaic rather than someone fluent in Greek.
Not sure where you got your def from, but the Hebrew teshuva does not have anything to do with feeling anything, including remorse or regret. It simply means to turn around and go the other way. It is a decision concerning outward action. It is based on the root word shub, which means "turn."I notice that the definition of the Hebrew word for repent is much different than the Greek. It is more similar to the secular definition we have today. Remorse or regret.
Where does Paul say that? I must be blanking on the passage.
Either way, “obligating” God to salvation is obviously impossible, as you say. But we participate in the process.
And resurrected AFTER the thief died.
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