In this response post I endeavor to follow a theme rather than continue with the previous way of posting back and forth.
You see the word 'unknown' is not found in Greek texts. Are you going to reject it? In fact, I am adhering to Peter's verse by showing the pitfall in Pentecostal theology.
I am aware that the translators of the KJV of the Bible had added the word 'unknown'. The general populace of Chrisendom, uses the word 'unknown' to refer to speaking in tongues, even as you have done throughout our discussion up to this point, and continued to do so throughout your post. Which belies your challenge to me that I reject it.
I, most often do not use the phrase, simply because my version of the Bible doesn't have the word, so I've been using it for the general reason.
For those reasons, the use of the word 'unknown' is not, as you say, 'a pitfall in Pentecostal theology'. Neither is it a matter of being a 'private interpretation' as Peter writes in his verse,
2 Pet.1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
An example however of 'private interpretation' would be what you said in the following..
Where does Paul says that the unknown tongue through the utterance of the Holy Spirit?
You will notice that you have used the word 'unknown' here. Which in the sequence of your post to me was before you pointed out that the word is not in the original Greek writing.
You are in this response implying that Paul's teachings concerning how the church service of Christians is to function regarding speaking in tongues, if I understand your meaning, are not according to the Holy Spirit but rather, by your estimation: default, the wisdom of men because there is no use of the phrase 'through utterance of the Holy Spirit' when he used the words 'speaking in tongues'.
Is that a correct reading of what you said?
Which brings me to the first part of your post.
That precisely is my point. The Holy Spirit gave utterance in all the contexts recorded in Acts. That is why no interpreter was required. It was not the case in Corinthian church where emotional people spoke with their spirits. Show me in Paul's letters where people spoke unknown tongue prompted directly by the Holy Spirit.
Here, you definitely imply that because the apostle Paul didn't say that the speaking in tongues was by utterance of the Holy Spirit, then his teachings are not inspired by God.
However, to Timothy the apostle Paul wrote in 2 Tim.3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.
But, due to your frame of mind on the matter, there is no need for me to comply with your challenge to show you anything. To comply, would be to adhere to your judgement. Or, as the saying goes, I will not dignify that with an answer.
Your sentence continues,
What is unknown to the Holy Spirit?
Your question implies that you think I use the word 'unknown' for Pentecostal reasons. However, if that were the case then I wonder why you have continued to use it when refering to speaking in tongues, throughout the remainder of your post to me.
That is your claim against the claim of Paul.
You have in your sentence used your theological reasoning to make a claim against me, not only in this sentence but throughout our entire discussions. I on the other hand have been using the new testament to show my adherence to Paul's teachings concerning speaking in tongues.
Due to this post of yours to me, I hereby state that I will no longer be replying to you. I think that the reasons are clearly evident.