I will try to make it very clear for you, why when the Bible says: "do not eat pork", people explain it away by saying "well, that was cultural", but when we talk about Genesis, that is not cultural and everyone has to take it literally even against all scientific evidence.
I'm finding this entire thread very interesting---in part because what for many is a passing interest and controversial question was for me many years of graduate school and a lifetime of scholarship and teaching on Biblical exegesis and hermeneutics. Needless to say, I "process" the various comments being posted here much like an evolutionary biologist would critique popular-level debates about creation-evolution controversies. (
In other words, I'm often equally flabbergasted by the confident but errant claims on BOTH sides----because the factual errors and myopic missing-the-point commentaries are so striking. That is not condescension; it is simply what happens when professionals observe amateurs doing what the professionals do for an entire career, some eight to 14 hours per day, years on end.)
So I am mainly curious about these aspects of the thread topic:
1)
Are these "literal interpretations" OR are they simply differences about APPLICATION of the Biblical text? (Indeed, I doubt that the OP really meant "literal interpretation" at all---because the way the OP was worded and the way most people read "interpreting" the "literal interpretation" tells me that APPLICATION is the issue.
2) After all, with any ancient text there is:
(a) what the ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek text was meant to BE as a text. [The field of Textual criticism, which determines the best manuscripts and reconstructing what was the likely original text.]
(b) what the original Hebrew or Greek text was meant to STATE to its intended audience,
(c) How should the text be TRANSLATED INTO ENGLISH so the average person can read that Biblical text? [Translation & exegesis; various linguistic fields.]
(d) For those who consider that Biblical text a sacred scripture, how should it be APPLIED within their religious tradition, group, or lifestyle?
Is (d) what the OP intended for this?
2)
Do readers of a given Biblical text believe that the text can be "literally interpreted" more than one way----or APPLIED more than one way?
3) Do readers believe that a Bible of 66 (or 80) books might each have different genres and therefore intended interpretations? (
Why should a compendium of 66 books---in two major collections which are intended for very different groups of people---be read and understood as if a single genre? Why would Genesis 1 have to read and understood in the same manner as a Gospel narrative in the New Testament? Should a Shakespeare sonnet be read and interpreted in the same way as a Shakespeare play?)
I'm not trying to criticize anyone. I'm just very curious how you see these various aspects of the text.