Note the phrase here was in Christ we are one; this is ONLY referring to salvation. Jew and Gentile could approach Christ for salvation on a perfect equality. The Jew at this time (on this earth) was still first place, (to the Jew first) as long as God is working out His earthly plan with Israel, they will always be in first place.Could someone please help with a few specific problems Im having with Mid-Acts and Acts 28 Dispensationalism?
In Romans 16:7, Paul sends his greetings to saints whom he declares were in Christ before me. If being in Christ means the same here as in Galations 3:28 (neither Jew nor Greek, etc.), then the church (body of Christ) must have begun prior to Pauls conversion. What else could he mean?
Another hint of the body of Christ existing before Pauls conversion is found in Acts 9:5, where the Lord says, I am Jesus, whom thou persecutest. This implies that Jewish believers were already in Christ, because if you hurt the body, you are hurting the head. Doesnt this imagery correspond with what Paul wrote later about the body of Christ, and how if one member suffers, all suffer?
It was not until after Israel was cast aside that Jew/Gentile could be in perfect equality on this earth
Deu 28:13-15 KJV
(13) And the LORD shall make thee the head, and not the tail; and thou shalt be above only, and thou shalt not be beneath; if that thou hearken unto the commandments of the LORD thy God, which I command thee this day, to observe and to do them:
There was TWO mysteries directly referring to the body of Christ. The first was (in a sense) hid BY the scriptures of the prophets, and the other was Hid in God. Take a look at Pauls writings during the acts period, He was pretty clear on the fact that everything he was doing was previously revealed in the scriptures.(13) And the LORD shall make thee the head, and not the tail; and thou shalt be above only, and thou shalt not be beneath; if that thou hearken unto the commandments of the LORD thy God, which I command thee this day, to observe and to do them:
Rom 1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,
Rom 1:2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)
So, Mystery #1 was that the Gentiles were to be blessed by the seed of Abraham BEFORE the nation of Israel was restored and that Gentiles would have access to God through Christ, NOT through Israel. In Christ they were one. Now lets briefly look at why this was done.Rom 1:2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)
Rom 10:19 But I say, Did not Israel know? First Moses saith, I will provoke you to jealousy by them that are no people, and by a foolish nation I will anger you.
Rom 11:11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
Rom 11:14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.
Rom 11:11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
Rom 11:14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.
Paul states; the reason salvation was sent to the Gentiles was to provoke Israel to jealousy OR to provoke Israel to emulation. This fits right in to the parable of the olive tree. Israel was being provoked by a foolish nation to excite by rivalry the true olive tree (Rom. 11) in order that she may produce her own fruit.
Eph 3:5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
Notice in verse 5 Paul states this mystery had a new twist. It was not made known as is NOW revealed, it had been revealed but not to this extent. Three times over in verse 6 the Holy Spirit uses a variation of a little Greek word SOO, which comes over to English as syn: SYNthetic, SYNthesis etc..etc.. this prefix means on a perfect equality.
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellow heirs,4789 and of the same body,4954 and partakers4830 of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
We could also say that the Gentiles were made JOINT-Heirs of a JOINT-Body and JOINT-Partakers on a perfect equality.So in a sense you are right, the body began to form with Pauls work during the acts period BUT there was a mystery attached to the head and also one attached to the body.
This was not revealed until AFTER Gods plan for Israel was placed on hold.
But as we noticed above, Pauls purpose was for Israel (the people WITH the covenants) during the Acts period.I am also having a problem with 2 Corinthians 3:6, where Paul says God has, made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant. Isnt Paul supposed to be a minister of reconciliation and the new creation body of Christ, rather than the new covenant? I simply cannot believe that Paul was speaking figuratively here.
Act 28:20 For this cause therefore have I called for you, to see you, and to speak with you: because that for the hope of Israel I am bound with this chain.
Rom 9:3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
For the hope of ISRAEL Paul was bound with his chain and for that same hope, Paul wished himself accursed from Christ for Israel, NOT for the Gentiles. That's a pretty bold statement wouldn't you say?Rom 9:3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
Its not until the full extent of the mystery had been revealed to Paul, did he say:
Eph 3:13 Wherefore I desire that ye faint not at my tribulations for you, which is your glory.
Eph 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ
Eph 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ
Im not sure I understand this. I think the above comments may help. PS. We are not children of covenant, we are children of promise!First Corinthians 11:25 states how the Lord Himself revealed to Paul that, This cup is the new covenant in My Blood. Apparently, just like other mysteries, Jesus specifically gave this to Paul, instead of letting him get it from the 12 apostles to Israel. Receiving mysteries in such a manner is a major point that dispensationalists make to emphasize the revelations of Paul for the Gentiles. Why did the risen Lord take special care to make Paul aware of the new covenant in His Blood, if he were not to then share that with the Gentiles, just like the mystery regarding the administration of Grace? Either the new covenant in Jesus Blood is as important to His church body as it is to earthly millenial kingdom Israel or it isnt. Paul went into great detail regarding the Lords Supper, but never went back to correct the Gentiles telling them no longer to celebrate it. The prison epistles gave us no new instructions for assembling that excluded sharing the cup of the new covenant until Jesus returns. Does anyone else see what Im getting at here?
Right We received the blood by promise, Israel through the covenant.When searching for answers, I ran across the following: The Church's relation to the shed Blood of the Cross is based upon Hebrews 13:20: "Now the God of peace, that brought again from the dead our Lord Jesus, that great Shepherd of the sheep, through the Blood of the Everlasting Covenant." And what are the Church's benefits now and forever, from the Blood of the Everlasting Covenant? "But now in Christ Jesus ye who once were far off are made nigh by the Blood of Christ." "Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the Holiest by the Blood of Jesus" (Eph. 2:13; Heb. 10:19). That benefit of the Blood, Israel will never know, nor even approximate. What will Israel's benefit be from the Blood of her New Covenant? "I will forgive their iniquity," and "I will cleanse them" (Jer. 31:34; Ezek. 37:23). That is the total benefit of the Blood to future kingdom Israel, from their New Covenant. The same Blood was shed for both the Church and Israel, but not with the same results.
I think youre almost there. What you need to realize is Pauls purpose during Acts as opposed to his purpose after Acts.Now, I personally can almost accept this idea, except for the fact that Paul relates his own ministry in Corinthians to the new covenant (Israels benefit), instead of relating it to the everlasting covenant (Gentiles benefit). Again I ask, why is Paul even speaking of covenants (everlasting OR new) at all? Is it okay to say that a dispensation may be connected to an everlasting covenant, but that the new covenant cannot be connected to a dispensation of Grace? If it works in one direction, why not the other way? It seems that either the body of Christ really began back at Acts 2 Pentecost (Rom 16:7 those in Christ before Paul), or that maybe covenants and dispensations can exist at the same time. Maybe like a software engineer, God always has a mainframe Covenant disk drive running in the background, while opening and executing Dispensational files within the parent program as needed (or something like that).
Any and all comments would be appreciated.
Keep in mind that there are three different stories of Pauls conversion in Acts. Possibly relating to the three different evolutions of His ministry.
1. Earthly purpose (previously recorded in scripture, kept secret since the foundation of the world)
a. the body of Christ. Jew/Gentiles one (in Christ)
2. Heavenly purpose (kept secret before the world began)
b. the church, which is His Body. Jew/Gentiles on a perfect equality (as made know previously, but not to the full extent. IE: as is NOW revealed)
c. The heavenly calling of this body, which was hid in God.
I hope this helps
Upvote
0