Dispensationalism Refuted

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Jerryhuerta

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Just as God forgives all his people through Christ.

You're sidestepping the point I was making. You were trying to dismiss that God reinstates Ephraim as a chosen people in Hosea 2:23, the elect individuals who comprise Ephraim. They are not gentiles. It’s a simple fact that some people in our modern society are descendants of the ten northern tribes of Ephraim and some are not. Supersessionists can grumble all they want but this fact still stands. When the inerrancy of scripture is upheld, the Old Testament texts concerning the restoration of the elect of Ephraim pertain to the descendants of the ten northern tribes and those concerning the elect gentiles pertain to those who are not descendants of the ten tribes. Your comments make no such distinctions so they are anachronistic, anthropologically as well as scripturally.

Your interpretation ends the inerrancy of scripture in that it no longer maintains the OT as a guide for the original addressees, as well as succeeding generations. The inerrancy of the OT is shattered when the prophets are interpreted as in error as to the identity of Ephraim, or that the ten northern tribes become synonymous with the gentiles, undistinguishable by God as to who is a descendant of Ephraim and who is not. God’s omniscience is called into question if he is unable to make such a distinction in the end and having ordained it to the prophets who lived thousands of years before its consummation. The prophets are simply incapable of relating future events concerning their people to their contemporaries and their future descendants is such an interpretation as yours and supersessionism that attacks the inerrancy of the OT.

Paul has Isaiah 11:10 fulfilled during the 1st century, which is in much closer relation to verse 13 than verse 4 is.

Isaiah 11:10 And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall arise to rule over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust, and his rest shall be glorious

Romans 15:8-9,12 For I tell you that Christ has become a servant of the Jews on behalf of God’s truth, to confirm the promises made to the patriarchs, so that the Gentiles may glorify God for His mercy. As it is written: And once more, Isaiah says: “The root of Jesse will appear, One who will arise to rule over the Gentiles; in Him the Gentiles will put their hope.”

Again, supersessionism fails to grasp fulfillment in juxtapose with consummation. Some prophecies are intended to be protracted phenomena; fulfillment is for an extended period until the consummation. Revelation 11 affirms the kingdoms of the world do not become Christ’s to rule until the time arrives to judge the dead and to reward the saints. Consequently, texts such as Romans 15:12 cannot be truly interpreted as consummated but only begun, any more than Judah and Ephraim’s reconciliation in avowing Christ. Isaiah’s prophecy that Ephraim is only fully reconciled with Judah when Christ strikes the “earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips he shall kill the wicked” (Isaiah 11:4) substantiates the enmity ends with Christ’s return in Revelation 11. Isaiah 11 cannot be correctly interpreted as fulfilled at the first advent.

In response to my perception that Ezekiel 37:19 and Hosea 1:10 are second advent events you wrote,

Fulfilled through Christ, as affirmed by Paul

Ezekiel 37:19 you are to tell them that this is what the Lord GOD says: ‘I will take the stick of Joseph, which is in the hand of Ephraim, and the tribes of Israel associated with him, and I will put them together with the stick of Judah. I will make them into a single stick, and they will become one in My hand.’

Ephesians 2:15-16 by abolishing in His flesh the law of commandments and decrees. He did this to create in Himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace and reconciling both of them to God in one body through the cross, by which He extinguished their hostility.

Paul confirms Christ is the "head" of this new man

Hosea 1:11 Then the people of Judah and of Israel will be gathered together, and they will appoint for themselves one head, and will go up out of the land. For great will be the day of Jezreel.

Ephesians 1:22 And he put all things under his feet and gave him as head over all things to the church

Colossians 1:18 And He is the head of the body, the church; He is the beginning and firstborn from among the dead, so that in all things He may have preeminenc

It is poor exegesis that cannot reconcile the prophecy that Christ breaks the brotherhood between Ephraim and Judah at the first advent and the NT texts that maintain peace for those IN Christ.

As regards the gospel, they are enemies of God for your sake. But as regards election, they are beloved for the sake of their forefathers. Romans 11:28

Now you, brothers, like Isaac, are children of promise. But just as at that time he who was born according to the flesh persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, so also it is now. Galatians 4:28-29​

As to the latter text, you conceded it pertained to Judah, and as to the first, you conceded Ephraim was not included according to Zechariah 10:8-9 as they were grafted in again to proclaim the great commission.

Again, you remonstrate against my perception that Ezekiel 37:19 and Hosea 1:10 are a second advent phenomenon you wrote,

Where do these witnesses mention the 2nd advent? Or is that your interpretation of what the witnesses "mean".

One cannot correctly interpret Christ came to bring Ephraim and Judah together when Zechariah 11:14 prophesied he would come to break the brotherhood apart (which is a fallacy), which substantiates Ezekiel 37:19 and Hosea 1:10 are a second advent phenomenon. Jews that are grafted in with Ephraim again in this age are the exception and not the rule. Romans 11:28 maintains the rule; they were hardened. Supersessionism continually and mistakenly attempts to make exceptions the rule.

Sure, just provide 1 NT scripture that states it is at the 2nd advent when the 2 nations are made one under Christ to support that YOUR interpretation of the OT is correct, and I will concede.

And what happened to your acknowledgment that 2 Timothy 3:16 is to be adhered to? All scripture is by inspiration. There is no need for prophecy in the OT to be repeated in the New in order for it to be considered defensible. Such a notion is what is wrong with supersessionism and its adherents. Furthermore, arguments from silence are fallacious. Both Testaments must agree or 2 Timothy 3:16 is undermined.

I have not conceded, I have agreed. please show where I disagreed and then later agreed that Ephraim was redeemed and gathered in Christ to proclaim the great commission, then I will concede you understand the definition of concede.

By God redeeming gentiles, of whom many of divorced Ephraim had descended, He gathers them into the body of Christ and sows them to proclaim the gospel to the nations.

Your avoiding that gentiles are not prophesied to be sown in the world as Ephraim, which demolishes your argument, amongst others.

This doesn't answer my question. Did the Jews believe that divorced Ephraim (not my people) were considered God's people under the old covenant or no?

You’re merely sidestepping here with your implication that under the Old Covenant the Jews considered Ephraimites gentiles, which they did not if they read Isaiah, Hosea, and Zechariah, which affirm they are restored. 1 Peter 1:1, 2:9;10, Romans 9:25-26 and 7:1-4 affirm the time in which they were restored as a covenant people.

Absolutely agree. But not all the jews came back to live in the land. This is confirmed by Acts and James

Acts 2:5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven

James 1:1 James, a servanta of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes in the Dispersion:

As stated, Isaiah 36:1 reveals that Sennacherib took cities from Judah captive. There were refugees from Judah that went with the 10 tribes into captivity. And Samaria was never restored to Ephraim, so they couldn’t come back, while the Jews could. All this affirms Peter addressed his epistles to Ephraim, who were still “exiles” in the fullest sense of the word.

Correct, as I believe the old covenant, albeit obsolete at the cross, vanished in 70ad at the destruction of the temple. Thus, the children of those under the old covenant (Jews who rejected Christ) were cast out in 70 ad along with the temple and all of its rituals.

Do you believe the Jews are still persecuting the body of Christ?

Do you maintain that they are no longer hardened?

There were 2 houses of Israel (Ephraim and Judah) from the time of Rehoboam until the Assyrian exile. At the Assyrian exile, God divorce them. They were no longer his people, and He was no longer their God. They were as gentiles From that point on. However, Judah remained married to God, thus there was only one house of Israel from that point on.

The inclusion of the gentiles, which included Ephraim, into the body of Christ with the remnant of Judah fulfills The promise to Ephraim.

Your acknowledgment/concession that Ephraim is gathered in Christ and sown in the world to proclaim the great commission is a huge contraction and that is why you are trying to backpedal now by trying to call them gentiles. Show us in scripture were the gentiles were sown in the world to proclaim the great commission if you can. History affirms, both Judah and Ephraim ultimately lost there homeland, which facilitated God sowing Ephraim amongst the gentiles to proclaim the great commission.

If there was evidence you would have easily provided it, but it appears you can't. And this poor argument reflects that.

A poorer argument is for someone who wasn’t there to judge someone’s credibility who was there.

Where did I avoid stating that gentiles being fellow heirs was always mentioned in the OT, it just wasn't understood until the Spirit gave understanding?

No, you’re not grasping the implications. 1 Peter 1:10-12 affirms the prophets were inquiring about the salvation of the elect exiles of the dispersion, which you are trying to morph into the salvation of the gentiles. Ephesian 3:4-6, which you brought up, maintains the prophets knew nothing about the gentiles becoming fellow heirs, members of the same body, and partakers of the promise in their Messiah, so they couldn’t have been inquiring about their salvation, period. It had to be Ephraim’s salvation they were inquiring about.
 
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jgr

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You were trying to dismiss that God reinstates Ephraim as a chosen people in Hosea 2:23, the elect individuals who comprise Ephraim. They are not gentiles. It’s a simple fact that some people in our modern society are descendants of the ten northern tribes of Ephraim and some are not. Supersessionists can grumble all they want but this fact still stands. When the inerrancy of scripture is upheld, the Old Testament texts concerning the restoration of the elect of Ephraim pertain to the descendants of the ten northern tribes and those concerning the elect gentiles pertain to those who are not descendants of the ten tribes. Your comments make no such distinctions so they are anachronistic, anthropologically as well as scripturally.

Your interpretation ends the inerrancy of scripture in that it no longer maintains the OT as a guide for the original addressees, as well as succeeding generations. The inerrancy of the OT is shattered when the prophets are interpreted as in error as to the identity of Ephraim, or that the ten northern tribes become synonymous with the gentiles, undistinguishable by God as to who is a descendant of Ephraim and who is not. God’s omniscience is called into question if he is unable to make such a distinction in the end and having ordained it to the prophets who lived thousands of years before its consummation. The prophets are simply incapable of relating future events concerning their people to their contemporaries and their future descendants is such an interpretation as yours and supersessionism that attacks the inerrancy of the OT.

There is not the slightest hint of "Ephraim" in Hosea 2:23.

Israel was comprised of both Jews and Gentiles from the time of its formation (Genesis 17:12).

A tribe which bears no mention in the NT cannot begin to be described as "chosen". Ephraim is in fact conspicuous by its absence (along with Dan) in the description of the OT faithful in Revelation 7.

There is only one chosen tribe in all of Scripture from beginning to end. It is the tribe of the faithful and obedient (1 Kings 19:18; Acts 10:34,35), the tribe of spiritual DNA found across all tribes of physical DNA, in creation throughout history.

Return your racialized pseudoscriptures to the landfill from whence they came.
 
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Jerryhuerta

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There is not the slightest hint of "Ephraim" in Hosea 2:23.

A tribe which bears no mention in the NT cannot begin to be described as "chosen". Ephraim is in fact conspicuous by its absence (along with Dan) in the description of the OT faithful in Revelation 7.

There is only one chosen tribe in all of Scripture from beginning to end. It is the tribe of the faithful and obedient (Acts 10:34,35), the tribe of spiritual DNA found across all tribes of physical DNA, in creation throughout history.

Return your racialized pseudoscriptures to the landfill from whence they came.

I do believe I've already given you the scriptures from the OT that affirm Ephraim was another name for the ten northern tribes so I'm not going to do it again. Hosea 1 and 2 affirm they it was the ten northern tribes that were divorced from God, while Judah still finds mercy in Hosea 1:7. Again, anthropology affirms the simple fact that some people in our modern society are descendants of the ten northern tribes of Ephraim and some are not. Supersessionists can grumble all they want but this fact still stands. When the inerrancy of scripture is upheld, the Old Testament texts concerning the restoration of the elect of Ephraim pertains to the descendants of the ten northern tribes and those concerning the elect gentiles pertain to those who are not descendants of the ten tribes. Your comments make no such distinctions so they are anachronistic, anthropologically as well as scripturally.
It is your supersessionism that has been exposed as antisemitic and should be relegated to the trash heap.
 
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jgr

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I do believe I've already given you the scriptures from the OT that affirm Ephraim was another name for the ten northern tribes so I'm not going to do it again. Hosea 1 and 2 affirm they it was the ten northern tribes that were divorced from God, while Judah still finds mercy in Hosea 1:7. Again, anthropology affirms the simple fact that some people in our modern society are descendants of the ten northern tribes of Ephraim and some are not. Supersessionists can grumble all they want but this fact still stands. When the inerrancy of scripture is upheld, the Old Testament texts concerning the restoration of the elect of Ephraim pertains to the descendants of the ten northern tribes and those concerning the elect gentiles pertain to those who are not descendants of the ten tribes. Your comments make no such distinctions so they are anachronistic, anthropologically as well as scripturally.
It is your supersessionism that has been exposed as antisemitic and should be relegated to the trash heap.

Anthropology affirms both mathematically and genetically that all humans on the planet possess the DNA of their ancestors, both semitic and otherwise, ubiquitously.

BI/RB/BS is a heterodox of both scientific and Scriptural ignorance.

Abraham lineage
DNA Tests Could Fulfill God’s Promise to Abraham by Revealing Millions of Jews. But How Jewish is Jewish Enough?
Israel in all of Us? Research finds 'Jewish genes' in unusual places
Jewish-Roots Arabs in Israel
Tracing the lost tribes to Jewish communities in Africa
Nigeria's Igbo Jews: 'Lost tribe' of Israel? - CNN
http://www.worldjewishcongress.org/...-africa-has-jewish-roots-genetic-tests-reveal
https://www.jpost.com/Jewish-World/...her-claims-proof-of-tribe-of-Ephraim-in-India
https://www.jta.org/2013/05/23/life...bush-bani-israel-tribe-claims-jewish-heritage

Example of the mathematical confirmation of ancestral genetic ubiquity
 
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Jerryhuerta

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There is no consensus in DNA for such an absurdity. There is counter research that objects to such notions that all people are descendants of Jacob, even being sown throughout the world. Supersessionism is where the true ignorance lies in scripture.
 
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jgr

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There is no consensus in DNA for such an absurdity. There is counter research that objects to such notions that all people are descendants of Jacob, even being sown throughout the world. Supersessionism is where the true ignorance lies in scripture.

You've invited to attempt to disprove any of the evidence presented.
 
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jgr

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DNA tests cannot even state paternity with certainty, and without Jacobs DNA such assertions are hubris.

Predictably, you've read none of the empirical evidence, the clear majority of which originates in the Jewish community itself.

But until you've disproved the mathematical foundation of genetic ubiquity, you've disproved nothing.

That foundation is irrefutable.

Get someone who is mathematically unchallenged to explain it to you.
 
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Jerryhuerta

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Predictably, you've read none of the empirical evidence, the clear majority of which originates in the Jewish community itself.

But until you've disproved the mathematical foundation of genetic ubiquity, you've disproved nothing.

That foundation is irrefutable.

Get someone who is mathematically unchallenged to explain it to you.

Really. The DNA evidence concerning the lost tribes has no scientific consensus, there is little agreement so it becomes irrelevant. Only God knows where they are. I could just as easily assert the evidence supporting British-Israelism.
 
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jgr

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Really. The DNA evidence concerning the lost tribes has no scientific consensus, there is little agreement so it becomes irrelevant. Only God knows where they are.

That is certainly a cogent mathematical disproof.

God created mathematics.
 
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Jerryhuerta

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What is it about the DNA that God created that intimidates and upsets you so?

It doesn't, but my strength lies with the scriptures, so why should I allow you to change the subject when you can't uphold your supersessionists beliefs?
 
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jgr

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It doesn't, but my strength lies with the scriptures, so why should I allow you to change the subject when you can't uphold your supersessionists beliefs?

It certainly seems to. Since God is the God of both Scripture and DNA, both are equally open to discussion. I've certainly engaged in Scriptural discussion. Why are you afraid to engage in DNA discussion?
 
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It certainly seems to. Since God is the God of both Scripture and DNA, both are equally open to discussion. I've certainly engaged in Scriptural discussion. Why are you afraid to engage in DNA discussion?

When you make unlearned comments like Hosea 2:23 doesn't pertain to Ephraim I'm gratified to keep the issues confined to the scriptures. After all, this is a forum on the scriptures, not mathematics.
 
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When you make unlearned comments like Hosea 2:23 doesn't pertain to Ephraim I'm gratified to keep the issues confined to the scriptures. After all, this is a forum on the scriptures, not mathematics.

God cannot contradict Himself. As the Author of genetics and mathematics, what He tells us through those disciplines cannot contradict what He tells us through Scripture. Therefore, genetics and mathematics must reinforce and confirm what Scripture declares.

And they do.

They therefore qualify to bear worthy witness and testimony to the truths of Scripture.
 
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