DavidPT
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- Sep 26, 2016
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Christians are not appointed to God's wrath.
1Thessalonians1:10 And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.
Differently, persons who take the mark and worship the beast will be subject to God's wrath.
Revelation 14:9 And the third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, If any man worship the beast and his image, and receive his mark in his forehead, or in his hand,
10 And the angel thrust in his sickle into the earth, and gathered the vine of the earth, and cast it into the great winepress of the wrath of God.
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The great tribulation begins when the abomination of desolation is standing in the holy place. Matthew 24:15.
Th great tribulation then lasts 1335 days, Daniel 12:11-12, to be ended when Jesus returns. The 7 vials of God's wrath will be poured out during those 1335 days, in the sequence given in Revelation 16.
Explain how, that if Christians are still here when the vials of wrath are being poured out, that any of the vials can be affecting them? Does not per the first vial, for example, indicate that it is poured out on those worshiping his image, that have his mark? Even if Christians are still present, the text never says the vials are poured out on every single person alive on the planet at the time. It says it is poured out on those worshiping the beast.
Question, as to this alleged Pretrib rapture you believe in, will infants also get raptured, and also children up to a certain age? What about any children born after the alleged Pretrib rapture, does this mean the vials get poured out on them as well since they are alive during the time of the vials? If no, why not? In order for the vials to not get poured on Christians, it requires that Christians have to literally be removed from the planet first. But in the case of infants born after this alleged Pretrib rapture, it doesn't require that they too need to be physically removed from the planet in order to not be affected by any of the vials?
As to the first vial, for example. It is not required that everyone who this vial is not meant for, that they have to literally leave the planet first before this vial can get poured out on those it is intended for, the fact the text never says it is intended for every single person on the planet. Which then raises another question. These unbelieving Jews that become Christians during Great tribulation after the church is allegedly removed first, and that if any of these Jews that become Christians are still alive when the first vial is poured out. What protects them from the vials of wrath? Can't be their removal from the planet being what protects them the fact you already have that removal being before they are saved, not after they are saved.
Instead of you trying to rationally explain any of these things I bring up here, let's just pretend I never brought any of those things up to begin with. That way you don't have to deal with any of these things and can keep on pretending that a Pretrib rapture is Biblical.
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