Can a Christian marry a divorced person?

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Lostbutfound!

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I understand what everyone is say, but doesn't lust fall under adultry. When you lust in your mind after another person doesn't God say that you have committed adultry with that person you lust after. I can't imagine that at one point in time that every man or women in modern day time has not done this. So shiversblood this man that drinks and beats his wife I am sure lust after other women if he has this standard of morals. So if he lust he is committing adulty and you can divorce, but you can't marry again. Thats how I see it.
 
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LJSGM

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Is there really such a thing as a blanket sin?

Does God not forgive?

Jesus said to the woman at the well that she had five husbands. Now if the last four were just a continuously adulterous relationship, then logically they wouldn't be her "husbands."
 
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Lostbutfound!

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Well the lady at the well had five husband and then she was with somebody else. But here is how I see it God will forgive you for the divorce but when you remarry its that kind of like everyday you are repeating the same sin by being remarried.
Its like you steal a candy bar from Circle k one day so you repent and God forgives you, that doesn't mean the you keep going back everyday and stealing another candy bar because God is a forgiving God. Not only that if you keep doing the same sin everyday are you really sorrowful in your heart for your sin.
 
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LJSGM

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Well the lady at the well had five husband and then she was with somebody else. But here is how I see it God will forgive you for the divorce but when you remarry its that kind of like everyday you are repeating the same sin by being remarried.
Its like you steal a candy bar from Circle k one day so you repent and God forgives you, that doesn't mean the you keep going back everyday and stealing another candy bar because God is a forgiving God. Not only that if you keep doing the same sin everyday are you really sorrowful in your heart for your sin.

You can't compare this to any other sin frankly. I don't agree one bit. The meaning of our existance isn't about our marriages, so I do think that God forgives. I don't think that God breaks families apart over a legalism. He's not pharisical.
 
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JDIBe

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I understand what everyone is say, but doesn't lust fall under adultry. When you lust in your mind after another person doesn't God say that you have committed adultry with that person you lust after. I can't imagine that at one point in time that every man or women in modern day time has not done this. So shiversblood this man that drinks and beats his wife I am sure lust after other women if he has this standard of morals. So if he lust he is committing adulty and you can divorce, but you can't marry again. Thats how I see it.

So this "hypothetical" emotional wife-beater we have created, now supposedly has "hypothetically" thought impure thoughts about another woman because "that's just what hypothetical emotional wife-beaters do". So since EVERY man and woman has therefore "hypothetically" lusted, then the commands of Jesus are of no effect (hypothetical and only for "perfect people which don't exist") and useless, divorces are "free", and marriage therefore, really means nothing.

Guys, really.....

Now we have reached the point where we are comparing sins. Some moral teachings of Jesus are valid, others can be ignored as not that important (life isn't all about candy bars either, you know...)

Please.....answer this question. I really would like to know what everyone thinks.

When someone says those two people are married.....what does "married" mean to you?
 
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LJSGM

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God does hate divorce.

But that doesn't mean that it's an unforgivable sin.

Of course we should never sin because we know we'll be forgiven. We should never sin period. But when a person has in their past sinned or not (for how can a person be in sin if it was the other that left them?) They can be forgiven and begin a new life in Christ.
 
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Shiversblood

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I understand what everyone is say, but doesn't lust fall under adultry. When you lust in your mind after another person doesn't God say that you have committed adultry with that person you lust after. I can't imagine that at one point in time that every man or women in modern day time has not done this. So shiversblood this man that drinks and beats his wife I am sure lust after other women if he has this standard of morals. So if he lust he is committing adulty and you can divorce, but you can't marry again. Thats how I see it.

I've never really considered this. So if a man simply lusts after another women he is actually already guilty of adultry without actually cheating on his wife, and his wife is then free to divorce him without commiteing a sin? I mean, it kinda makes sense. Do you other guys agree?
 
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JDIBe

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God does hate divorce.

But that doesn't mean that it's an unforgivable sin.

Of course we should never sin because we know we'll be forgiven. We should never sin period. But when a person has in their past sinned or not (for how can a person be in sin if it was the other that left them?) They can be forgiven and begin a new life in Christ.

No, it is not an unforgivable sin. Yes, a person can begin a new life in Christ. But the OP spoke of a Christian marrying an unscripturally divorced person. A Christian ought to know better.

I do realize there are some circumstances in which you cannot "unring a bell". My current thinking is to do the best you can in the situation you are in and pray for God's Grace. Pray a lot. What you do not do, however, is get yourself KNOWINGLY entangled in a situation not in accordance with God's Will.

I guess what bothers me the most about what has been posted lately are these things...

1. The concept that there are certain sins that don't matter and shouldn't be considered in this day and age. When Jesus left the woman who was to be stoned for adultry, He did not nudge her in the side, wink and say, "Don't worry about it.". He told her, "Go and sin no more." God's Grace does not relieve us of our Christian responsibility to grow in the nuture and admonition of the Lord. It covers us when we fail, picks us up when we fall, and helps us to continue to become more Christ-like. To do otherwise is to simply "bury one's talent in the sand".

2. When some people are simply doing their best to do what God says, there are always some who pull out the "P-Word". Consider the answers to these 2 questions: a. What is Corban? and b. WHY did the lawyers ask Jesus what the most important law was? Please reconsider what "pharisical" means. It might have a different connotation than you thought.

As I have said before, the best way to deal with the passage is to make sure it doesn't apply to you. And that means choosing a good mate. That is why I felt the need to talk to our younger members about it. The world tells them something very different.

You are married, I see.... What do you think "married" means? I fear sometimes our younger people really don't know....:(
 
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LJSGM

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Please reconsider what "pharisical" means. It might have a different connotation than you thought.

a part of pharisicalism means to me: Upholding a certain law above doing what is truely right.

Getting a divorce because someone told you that you were in a continuously adulterous relationship because your partner was previously divorced even though you have children through this partner is a true example of pharisicalism.
 
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Svt4Him

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A put away woman means she was not divorced, but put out of her husbands house. She could not work, she could not get remarried, she did not get a dowry back.

God hates putting away, He never said He hated divorce. As a matter of fact, the Bible says if your married, don't seek to be loosed. If you're loosed, don't seek to get married. But if you do marry, you do not sin.

That seems pretty straight forward, and it seems like a contradiction. When you have a contradiction, it is important to understand why, as the Bible makes sense from beginning to end. The problem is people say put away and divorce are the same, but have not studied it enough to understand why they are not.

The pharasees came to Jesus and asked if it was lawful to put away a spouse. Not divorce, put away. Jesus asked what Moses commanded. Moses commanded to divorce, then put away, clearly two different things. Then Jesus said whoever puts away their spouse except for adultery, causes her to commit adultery if she remarries. If you marry someone who is put away they are still married, so it is adultery. If they have been divorced, then it is not adultery, you have been loosed from that marriage.

To understand that, also then helps Paul not contradict Jesus when he said a wife is not bound if her unbelieving husband leaves.

Quoted with permission:

Did Moses “Suffer” Divorce or was it a Command?

by Robert Waters

What Did Moses Suffer?
The traditional teaching of our day is that Moses “suffered” or allowed divorce but that Jesus changed the law on the matter to what God intended from the beginning, which, by the way, was BEFORE sin and any need for divorce laws.
In my debates on divorce and remarriage I have yet to get an answer from an opponent to questions relating to this issue. Why do they refuse to answer the question? I do not intend to get into the matter of why I think they do not want to go there but in this article I hope to make it clear to you that Moses did give a command, regarding divorce, rather than simply give permission to divorce. This may, at first, sound contrary to the idea that to be faithful to God a man must be faithful to his faithful wife (a point to which I agree), but listen carefully as I try to help you understand the teaching of Moses and Jesus, who took the opportunity to explain Moses’ teachings to men who misconstrued it and misused it and who thought they could use their “understanding” to entrap Jesus in his words to his destruction.
In Mark 10:2, we see where Jesus was asked, “Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife? tempting him.” Jesus responded by asking, “What did Moses command you?” Later in the house his disciples asked him again on the same matter. Jesus answered saying, “Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her” (verse 11).
Thus, what the Jews were doing was adultery against their wives. There was a command but it evidently was not being obeyed. However, for some reason teachers of tradition on MDR are not willing to admit that Moses’ teaching (Deut. 24:12-4) was a command.
Let us note another matter where a command was given but where some refuse to admit that it is a command. In Acts chapter 10:21-48 we have the record of the case where the first Gentile family obeyed the gospel. Peter said, “Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?” After apparently getting no response Peter then gave a command: “And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ" (verse 48).
Now, to those who reject baptism as being a command and essential to obedience, we would ask: what did Peter command? We would endeavor not to allow one to ignore this clear teaching or ease their mind with some quibble, and we certainly would not let anyone get away with denying that baptism is a command in view of such a clear statement.
Indeed, that Moses gave a command regarding divorce is an undeniable fact. The fact that he “suffered” something does not change the fact of the command, and “command” and “suffered” cannot both be about the same matter. What Moses “suffered” was the Jews putting way their wives. There simply was no punishment for it. Such putting away resulted in adultery against their wife (covenant breaking, Mark 10:11) but such sin was not the same as where a man would commit adultery with “another man’s wife.” (Remember, men were allowed to have more than one wife.) Although Moses commanded that a “writ of divorcement” be given there was never a punishment associated with merely putting a wife away; thus the practice continued among men who were “hard hearted” and wanting to keep the dowry they received from the woman’s family and/or not wanting to allow the women to “be another man’s wife.”
However, many argue that “put away” means divorce and they proceed to explain Jesus’ teachings as if He was talking about legal divorce. Thus, they have Moses permitting something and at the same time commanding it. Therefore we see inconsistency in their thinking and error in their practice because truth does not contradict itself. Those who want the truth must reject the idea that “put away” means divorce. When one understands the Mosaic text under consideration when Jesus spoke and that “put away” simply means what it says (what we English speaking people understand it to mean), he will be on his way to a clear understanding of what Jesus really taught and be able to accept and harmonize the plain teaching of Paul as found in 1Tim. 4:1-4; 1Cor. 7:2, 8, 9, 27, 28, with Jesus’ teaching.
Did Jesus contradict the Law by pointing to God’s original intent and thus teach that a divorced person commits adultery in marrying another? Let us now look as some select comments from various well-known and respected commentators.
Clark:
Mat 19:8 – There was no divorce between Eve and Adam; nor did he or his family practice polygamy. But our Lord, by the beginning, may mean the original intention or design.
It was evidently God’s original intention that men stay with their wife and treat her as his own flesh. What the Jews were practicing, which Jesus condemned, was obviously contrary to what God intended from the beginning.
Barnes:
Mat 19:8 – He saith unto them ... - Jesus admits that this was allowed, but still he contends that this was not the original design of marriage. It was only a temporary expedient growing out of a special state of things, and not designed to be perpetual. It was on account of the hardness of their hearts. Moses found the custom in use. He found a hard-hearted and rebellious people. In this state of things he did not deem it prudent to forbid a practice so universal; but it might be regulated; and, instead of suffering the husband to divorce his wife in a passion, he required him, in order that he might take time to consider the matter, and thus make it probable that divorces would be less frequent, to give her a writing; to sit down deliberately to look at the matter, and probably, also, to bring the case before some scribe or learned man, to write a divorce in the legal form. Thus doing, there might be an opportunity for the matter to be reconciled, and the man to be persuaded not to divorce his wife. This, says our Saviour, was a permission growing out of a particular state of things, and designed to remedy a prevailing evil; but at first it was not so. God intended that marriage should be between one man and one woman, and that they were only to be separated, in the case specified, by him who had formed the union.
Barnes errantly indicates that divorce was given as permission; however, I can agree to the rest of his statement above. Jesus, in elaborating on Gen. 2:24, said, “Let not man put asunder.” Moses’ Law (Deut. 24:1-4) was designed to “remedy a prevailing evil.” Jesus, in explaining the Law, was not telling the Pharisees and disciples that if they divorce and marry another they commit adultery; He was saying YOU cannot do it YOUR way. You must do it God’s way, which was explained in simple terms by Moses. It involved doing three things: 1) Write a bill of divorcement; 2) put it into her hand; and 3) send her out of the house. Man’s way of “divorcing” was wrong because it resulted in adultery. God’s way of ending a marriage frees both parties completely, and when those legally and scripturally divorced marry another they do not commit adultery. Only by obedience to the command to be baptized is one freed from sin and bondage to Satan. In the same way, obedience to the command of Moses, who received such by inspiration of God (Deut. 24:1-4), resulted in freedom from marital bondage.
People’s New Testament:
Mat 19:7-8 – Why then did Moses command? (Deu 24:1-4). They insinuate that he contradicts Moses.
It is evident from the above comment that Johnson understood that Jesus did not contradict Moses’ teachings in Deut. 24, but that it was the Jew’s intention to charge Jesus with doing so.
Moses, for your hardness of heart. Moses "suffered" some things that were not right on account of "the hardness of your heart," a low state of morals. A people cannot be lifted from moral depravity to a high standard at once. Hence the law permitted some things that were below the perfect standard of Christ.

-----------------------------------
Indeed, an evil was “suffered”; however, the evil was not the divorce procedure because that was what was commanded as opposed to ending the relationship by merely putting away or permanent separation. The evil was "putting away" and not giving the divorce, which would free the woman to “go be another man’s wife.”
 
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Corin

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I've never really considered this. So if a man simply lusts after another women he is actually already guilty of adultry without actually cheating on his wife, and his wife is then free to divorce him without commiteing a sin? I mean, it kinda makes sense. Do you other guys agree?


Its adultery in their heart.

But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart”
(Matthew 5:27-28).

Matthew 19:9
"I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
 
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Shiversblood

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I was thinking about it and, Matthew 5:27-28 makes no sense. Jesus was joking about marital unfaithfulness being the only way for someone to divorce thier spouse? Lust is the actual way for a divorce to be legit? Every man has lusted before while married. That would mean 90% of divorces are Godly.
 
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mpok1519

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of course you can marry a divorced person, and of course you can divorce someone and get remarried.

Who says you cant? religion? ha.

arent you supposed to listen to logic, reasoning, rationale, and your own introspection?

The Bible also says its okay to put your own children to death. Now, do we listen to that part of the Bible? no. The Word also says you can't eat shellfish. Is it a big deal if we don't? Of course not. The Bible also says you should only marry one with your religion; wouldn't life be miserable if we weren't allowed to marry one of OUR choice? Some people say God chooses our spouses, but really, is it God typing this message right now? no, its me. Is it God driving my car to work everyday? In a way. yes. But in other ways, no.
 
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Sketcher

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I was thinking about it and, Matthew 5:27-28 makes no sense. Jesus was joking about marital unfaithfulness being the only way for someone to divorce thier spouse? Lust is the actual way for a divorce to be legit? Every man has lusted before while married. That would mean 90% of divorces are Godly.
When Jesus was talking over the seriousness of the marriage bond with the disciples, I highly doubt this is what He meant.

of course you can marry a divorced person, and of course you can divorce someone and get remarried.

Who says you cant? religion? ha.

arent you supposed to listen to logic, reasoning, rationale, and your own introspection?

The Bible also says its okay to put your own children to death. Now, do we listen to that part of the Bible? no. The Word also says you can't eat shellfish. Is it a big deal if we don't? Of course not. The Bible also says you should only marry one with your religion; wouldn't life be miserable if we weren't allowed to marry one of OUR choice? Some people say God chooses our spouses, but really, is it God typing this message right now? no, its me. Is it God driving my car to work everyday? In a way. yes. But in other ways, no.
Said by the person with no sense of context.
 
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mpok1519

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Wow, hardly any room in there for God, is there?

Are we trolling today?....;)


when did I say theres no room for God?

God doesnt want us to use our rationale, logic and selfward introspection?

I'm pretty sure its a sin not to use one's logic and rationale. =)
 
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