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Two calls, general and effectual.
Two are the same gospel.
Both calls or say any salvation calls are commands to repent and believe as Acts 17 states. The call is not open to disputing, if you disagree with or dispute the call your dead. So God must make you alive who were dead in order for you to respond to that call in faith not of yourself being God's gift to you of salvation.
The call of God that results in an actual salvation is the one that begins with God's foreknowing that His call will actually save His elect whom He chose. Hid word accomplishes the purpose for which it is sent.
Regarding His word, for those whom He foreknew to save, mercy and salvation, and for those He did and does not foreknow, damnation, no mercy, a reprobation.
I think that you need to re-read your Bible. What does Jesus' nameThis is a man-made doctrine which Calvinism promotes. If it's your cup of tea, you are more than welcome to drink it.
The 'general' call is to all sinners to repent (which includes you, me, and everyone else). What makes the 'general' call 'effectual' is the response of man.
What would make this call effectual?
Matthew 15:10
When He had called the multitude to Himself, He said to them, “Hear and understand:
This call is only effectual by the choice of the multitude to come to Jesus. Those of the multitude who did not come made the same call ineffectual.
One call, two outcomes!
I think that you need to re-read your Bible. What does Jesus' name
mean. It means "Saviour - For He will save "His" people from their
sins". The first chapter of Ephesians talks of election. God chose
His people for His own glory. What about God choosing the Israelites
in the Old Testiment? In Romans it states "Jacob I loved, Esau I
hated.". I could go on and on.
We love Him, because He first loved us.
In Revelation "Behold, I stand at the door and knock. If any man hear
my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with
him, and he with me.". This is not talking about unbelievers. This
verse is part of a letter written to the church of Laodicea who were
believers in Jesus. This verse therefore helps me see that it is God
alone who "effectually calls" His people. His calling is
therefore "irresistable" and we come.
The Christ of Arminianism - offers salvation to every sinner and does all
in his power to bring them to salvation. His offer and work are often
frustrated, for many refuse to come.
The Christ of the Bible - effectually calls to Himself only the elect and
sovereignly brings them to salvation. Not one of them will be lost. (Isa.
55:11, John 5:21, John 6:37-40, John 10:25-30, John 17:2, Phil. 2:13)
What you refer to as the Christ of Arminianism very well describes how Lucifer and a third of the angels left Heaven due to their own rebellion. You make it sound as if God was too impotent and His will was overthrown by a third of His angels. Same goes for the fall of Adam.
John 11
43When He had said these things, He cried out with a loud voice, "Lazarus, come forth." 44The man who had died came forth, bound hand and foot with wrappings, and his face was wrapped around with a cloth. Jesus said to them, "Unbind him, and let him go."
What made DEAD Lazarus come forth. His choice?
Jesus did not die to save any angels.
Something to consider is hell was created for the devil and his fallen angels.
So Satan fell before Adam. Satan fell and Hell was then created, before the fall of man.
Going back to Genesis 3, God makes several pronouncements and the devil would be eternally cursed, but for some of man there would be a redemption come by the seed of the woman. This God's promise of Christ and Satan's destiny He spoke directed to the serpent, not to Eve. I view that as salvation being entirely up to God, Eve and Adam are to be redeemed, to undue what Satan had done. In fact, God kills animals and makes a blood sacrifice to cover their nakedness.
Then we read of Cain who killed his brother that Cain was of the evil one, Satan as the apostle John teaches. And Abel was righteous so of God and also approved of.
1 John 3:12
not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. And why did he murder him? Because his works were evil and his brother’s righteous.
God warns Cain sin has it's desire for him, but Cain being evil of Satan also becomes a murderer. John goes further saying Cain was 'of Satan' and so then did evil. However Abel was not of Satan and neither were Adam and Eve.
No because righteousness of a person is declared by God and not man.So Abel was righteous. Doesn't this go against your beliefs?
No because righteousness of a person is declared by God and not man.
Romans 4:8
Blessed is the man to whom the Lord shall not impute sin.”
If God will not impute to a person their sins, then God considers them righteous. Of course not imputing sins means God has chosen to be merciful.
This is entirely up to God to make such a decision.
For now, God declares those who believe, putting their trust in Christ as righteous. In the OT Christ had not yet been revealed so their sin was overlooked, still they were not yet made perfect until Christ came so when they died they went to hell, yet in Paradise in the midst of Hell.