TaylorSexton
1689 London Baptist Confession of Faith
- Jan 16, 2014
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I'll stick with what the Bible states on religion that God our Father accepts.
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I'll stick with what the Bible states on religion that God our Father accepts.
denominations are demonic
I think the ONLY version that has even a snowball's chance of saying that is the most ancient of the Peshita manuscripts written in first century Aramaic, not Greek.
For more information on that I suggest that you read the Introduction section of George Lamsa's New Testament translation. He goes into great detail on the history of the various Aramaic versions, and why he used manuscripts that pre-date the TR and the Syriac by 3 centuries.
The bible and the bible alone is the ONLY source for salvation, and I will ad that the KJV is the ONLY bible all else are satanic counterfeits!
This is a classic example of what I have been saying.
And here I was thinking that Jesus is the only way to salvation.
Stupid me.
God Bless
Till all are one.
WITHOUT GOD'S HOLY WORD THE KJV BIBLE THERE WOULD BE NO JESUS!!!!
If you would have quoted the whole post in context I did write that Jesus is the ONLY way to salvation. Are you only on here to argue and find fault? You pick a comment from a different thread and post it out of context just so you can look like the hero?
WE ARE SAVED BY GRACE THROUGH FAITH!!!!! FAITH COMES BY HEARING THE WORD OF GOD!!!! WITHOUT GOD'S HOLY WORD THE KJV BIBLE THERE WOULD BE NO JESUS!!!!
The bible and the bible alone is the ONLY source for salvation, and I will ad that the KJV is the ONLY bible all else are satanic counterfeits! ...Jesus Who is the ONLY way to heaven.
WE ARE SAVED BY GRACE THROUGH FAITH!!!!! FAITH COMES BY HEARING THE WORD OF GOD!!!! WITHOUT GOD'S HOLY WORD THE KJV BIBLE THERE WOULD BE NO JESUS!!!!
Really? Where was Jesus before King James directed "his" translation of the bible in 1611?
I wonder how people got saved prior to 1611?
Did people get saved prior to 1611?
What did the church use prior to 1611?
Did God leave His church without any form of His Word until 1611?
Here are some facts on the KJV as we know it:
"Did the King James translators use this "textus receptus" as the basis for their translation?
No. Even the first Elzevir edition was not published until 13 years after the date of the KJV.
What was the Greek text on which the KJV New Testament was based?
It was based on the third edition of the Greek New Testament issued by the Parisian publisher Stephanus
(Latinized form of Estienne) in 1550.
Was the text of Stephanus on which the King James Version was based identical with the later "textus receptus"?
No. The two differed in 287 places.
How many Greek manuscripts agree exactly with the edition published by Stephanus, and how many agree exactly with the edition published by Elzevir?
There is no Greek manuscript that agrees exactly with either of these. Both of them are conflate texts.
Were the scholars who prepared the King James Version convinced that their text was absolutely correct?
No. They recognized the possibility of copyists' errors, and showed this by making marginal notes to variant readings at 13 places. For instance, in Luke 17:36 their marginal note reads: "This 36th verse is wanting in most of the Greek copies." In Acts 25:6, where their text reads: "When he had tarried among them more than ten days," they inserted the following marginal note: "Or, as some copies read, no more than eight or ten days."
What was the source of most of the readings found both in the edition of Stephanus and in that of Elzevir?
Most of the readings in both of these follow the edition of the Greek New Testament prepared by Erasmus, the great enemy of Luther, and published in 1516, the year before the Reformation began.
Should a denomination or association of churches oppose a version solely on the ground that it is not based on the textus receptus?
The important thing about a version is its accuracy in translating the text of the Bible. The KJV was greatly used of God for 300 years until much of its language became quite archaic, as the English language changed.
It is foolish to ask young people to learn the language of 300 years ago in order to read the Bible. Even mature Christians do not know what is meant by such phrases as "we do you to wit" (2 Cor. 8:1). and "thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing" (Ps. 5:6). God's people need an accurate translation in the language of today. This is extremely vital. It is wrong to ask Christians to oppose a translation because it tries to follow the ancient manuscripts rather than a text based largely on Erasmus' edition. To do so is to make an idol of the textus receptus. or of the King James Version. God does not want His people to be idolaters!* (emphasis here mine, also see **)
*The preceding material was compiled by the late Allan A. MacRae, President and Professor of Old Testament at Biblical Theological Seminary, Hatfield, PA. Copyright 1975.
** Which also re-enforces what I said previously: "When they say that the KJV is the only version you should use, it should be an opinion, not a doctrine. They in fact, make the KJV an idol."
Source
There is also the fact that today, the most popular, and the best selling version of the King James Version of the Bible is the one published by the Trinitarian Bible Society.
And guess whose material they use for their KJV bible?
"This Scrivener 1881 text is supposedly identical to the 1894 edition which was published posthumously and has been reprinted by the Trinitarian Bible Society."
Source
Funny, if you indeed are privileged to possess a true 1611 Authorized King James Version your sitting on a gold mine. And who, would dare to break it out and use it on a daily basis?
God Bless
Till all are one.
Did people get saved reading the Latin Vulgate, which was much, much earlier than the KJV?
By the way, a copy of the KJV of 1611 is available for purchase today as a popular size Bible. A fellow in a church I used to attend was pressing people to get that version. He was a KJVonlyist.
Oz
So tell me what is the inspired Word of God,unyielding infallible?
As with any language over time,slang and ubonics become the norm.
With the update on God's Word does it change the meaning?
Example 1940s musicals often used the word gay as being joyfull,today being gay means you are a homosexual.
The King James calls men who lay with men Sodomite, The ESV calls them temple prostitutes.
Is this a better translation?
As far as the Vulgate goes during its time you did what the Church said to do or suffer.
I wonder how reformed we are today.
Which - unfortunately, are no longer in existence.The autographa!
That is not what you said.
The KJV Bible for salvation, and Jesus to get to heaven.
Two totally different things.
And who says the RSV, ESV, or any other version are "satanic"?
God Bless
Till all are one.
To the contrary: Without God's holy word in the original Greek NT manuscripts, there would be no recorded information about Jesus!