"Ah, no, you're mistaken. You see, the Kalam Cosmological Argument is based off of probabilities, that's all."
Ahhh...probabilities, huh? Gee...all this time I've been thinking is a deductive logic argument founded upon empirical observations. Silly me, I'll address your "probabilities" in just a moment...but first...
Sure, probabilities. When have I said otherwise? When have I ever tried to claim you could prove a Creator with the five senses?
"Actually, in this case the burden of proof would be on you since the overwhelming majority of things that begin to exist do have a cause. "
This is a type of logical fallacy known as an appeal to numbers. It's a lot like the appeal to popularity fallacy except without the people. By the same line of reasoning, I could argue "the overwhelming majority of things that begin to exist in the universe are caused by natural events and not the supernatural....therefore if the universe began to exist it was caused by some natural method." See how that works? It's just poor reasoning.
What exactly do you mean by "natural method"? Remember, the Cosmological Argument is saying that the best explanation of the cause is God (based on the Teleological Argument). It's not ruling out all other possibilities.
"Therefore, the overwhelming probability would be on my side and it wouldn't really harm the argument in the slightest"
There's that pesky word again...."probability". I'm gonna go out on a limb here and guess you have no idea how statistically probable relationships are formed, do you? There's quite a bit of science to it...It's not something you can do (to my knowledge anyway) without any evidence. For example, if I had three objects in front of me...and two of them are round....that fact will in no way influence the probability that the third object is also round. If I just jumped to the conclusion that the third object is also round, I've made what is known in the land of statistical probability a "spurious correlation".
That's what you've created here...a spurious correlation. You took object A (a chair) and object B (a fish) and decided that since they are both "caused", object C (the universe...which isn't an object so much as it is a set) and decided it's "caused" as well. Why? What would any object being "caused" have to do with another object being caused? Absolutely nothing... that's what.
No, I didn't. Look at the premises again:
1) Everything that begins to exist has a cause
2) The universe began to exist
3) The universe had a cause
4) The best explanation of that cause is God
Now #2 can be conclusively proven true because we know that time began to exist. I pointed this out in an earlier post. You challenged #1, but the overwhelming majority of evidence is on my side nonetheless. #3 and #4, then, is really where your challenge lies.
As far as your statement "what would any object being 'caused' have to do with another object being caused," the answer is simple: if we detect a pattern whereby all (or nearly all) objects that begin to exist are "caused," then it follows that other objects are going to follow this pattern. Hence, we arrive at premise #3.
To make that sort of correlation, you'd have to show that one of the properties of everything in the universe is that it must have a cause. I've already shown you that isn't the case with my example of virtual particles.... so the correlation fails.
We're back where we started. The overwhelming majority (aka, everything else) in the universe has a cause. So again, the overwhelming probability is on my side.
Even if virtual particles did have a cause (and it appears that they don't), a universe Isn't "part of" the universe...a set cannot be considered a member of itself.... so the properties of things within the universe aren't necessarily properties of the universe itself.
I don't agree with you on this. Don't you agree that the things within the universe are a part of the universe?
"Time must have begun to exist since you can't have an infinite series of past events. If you did, you would have never arrived at the present event. Since the universe is subject to time, then the universe began to exist."
In conversations like this, I always want to add the caveat "as we know it" after the word time... because statements like yours become correct (sort of) when we do. I would disagree with the last sentence... the universe Isn't necessarily contingent upon time as we know it, but time as we know it is contingent upon the universe.
So we'll have to disagree on whether or not the universe is subject to time. I would ask why you think that it isn't.
Even though I just made up that entire explanation for why god doesn't need a creator, it's got just as much meaning and explanatory power as your concept of "outside of time"....which is to say they're both meaningless and explain nothing.
Very well, then: please tell me how we're supposed to explain a concept like "outside of time" which we've never experienced?