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I don't think we have ever said there was no law before Mt Sinai any where. I think the contention is what exactly that law is or was. You use the word commandments to nevermean anything except the 10 commandments. I have shown this is not so in discussing I John 3:23 in this thread. I have shown you more than once in other threads much more proof the definition you hold to is in error. I get no feed back on this point. Not even a question. Thus I firmly believe that your definition is not accurate accross the spectrum of its usage. For instance Deut 5:1-5. Is Moses lying that this covenant and thus laws has indeed been issued before? What do you believe? What is it about those 5 verses you wish to say I don't understand?"it was added because of transgressions".
this is what i don't understand from the others on this forum.
they say there was no law before sinai, yet gal 3:19 says the law was added because of transgressions.
transgressions are sin and we know what 1jn 3:4 says.
put all that with rom 4:15, last part, and i don't see how the "law haters" get away with using this verse to support what they say.
it defies logic to me! :o
How long will this
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