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What about Sara in Egypt? I believe you would agree that that would have been a situation of Adultery as well as with Joseph. How did they know? I am sure you know of other examples, unless you want we to show all of them, not only in reference to the law of adultery but the other laws of the Ten Commandments also.Nothing here indicates this was the commandments or laws given to Moses.
What do you mean? Is it that there was no law against idolatry, murder and things like homosexuality? God was totally unfair to Sodom then! Indeed what were they guilty of? Why condemn a man for what he was totally unaware of? This is not the same God who made a way of escape for persons that killed unknowingly? Num. 35:15 These six cities shall be a refuge, both for the children of Israel, and for the stranger, and for the sojourner among them: that every one that killeth any person unawares may flee thither.While Moses clearly says the law was not given to anyone prior to Sinai. You have an irreconcilable problem.
The premise that it was not written before so it did not exist is a faults one. Did they not know about Adam and Abraham, Sara and Rebecca? So why write about them!Just because the words "commandments", statutes, and laws are used here is no proof of WHAT those were. The onus of proof is on you to prove that the 10 commandments were THOSE listed and so far you are arguing from silence.
So far you reject the absolute proof written of Moses accepting the Law from God that is written in an undeniable fashion such that it screams that the 10 commandments never existed prior to the inception of them upon stone tablets. If people were already keeping the 10 why would they need to be written on stone and given to them, all God would have to do is tell them to CONTINUE on as commanded but instead we see God lay out a whole mess of rules AND when a man was caught picking up sticks on the Sabbath even Moses was clueless what to do about it till he asked God, and the found out that it is death to break the Sabbath day. Did God's commandments suddenly change? Why is it that there is no death for breaking the Sabbath prior to Moses and some here equate after the cross there is no death for breaking the Sabbath when in fact both of these statement conclude there is a change in the Sabbath Law itself. The only thing that makes logical sense is that the Sabbath commandment was not a law prior to Moses and that either Jesus actions abolished the Law itself or it still exists.
A law is worthless if there is no consequence for breaking it.
Your logic goes against you in that they knew about people but didn't write about them with regards to the law.The premise that it was not written before so it did not exist is a faults one. Did they not know about Adam and Abraham, Sara and Rebecca? So why write about them!
Are you trying to entice a confession they had the law against the words of Moses?What about Sara in Egypt? I believe you would agree that that would have been a situation of Adultery as well as with Joseph. How did they know? I am sure you know of other examples, unless you want we to show all of them, not only in reference to the law of adultery but the other laws of the Ten Commandments also.
Why will you not respond to content of a post?What do you mean? Is it that there was no law against idolatry, murder and things like homosexuality? God was totally unfair to Sodom then! Indeed what were they guilty of? Why condemn a man for what he was totally unaware of? This is not the same God who made a way of escape for persons that killed unknowingly? Num. 35:15 These six cities shall be a refuge, both for the children of Israel, and for the stranger, and for the sojourner among them: that every one that killeth any person unawares may flee thither.
You still have to deal with Deut 5 which you ignore.The premise that it was not written before so it did not exist is a faults one. Did they not know about Adam and Abraham, Sara and Rebecca? So why write about them!
Would his line of reasoning deny Divine inspiration as a source of material facts?Your logic goes against you in that they knew about people but didn't write about them with regards to the law.
We are dealing with God!!!! Does God change????????? Is our God seen as a God with no laws, then changes His mind and says, here are some laws and then again. look forget those laws. Is that the picture of God describe in our bibles???? What a tangle web we weave!Once again, the presence of any precept in one time or place does not in any way portend the presence of an entire series of laws from another time and place which happens to carry the same precept.
Nearly every legal system in history forbade murder: this doesn't mean they all kept a Sabbath.
+It is not a confession but a fact! Moses is not saying there was no law, How else would Joseph say that He could not sin against God! Because the woman was too beautifulAre you trying to entice a confession they had the law against the words of Moses?
Oh! So with Joseph would be in regards of what? Peanuts! Why was it written?????Your logic goes against you in that they knew about people but didn't write about them with regards to the law.
We are dealing with God!!!! Does God change????????? Is our God seen as a God with no laws, then changes His mind and says, here are some laws and then again. look forget those laws. Is that the picture of God describe in our bibles???? What a tangle web we weave!
Oh! So with Joseph would be in regards of what? Peanuts! Why was it written?????
Tim. 3:
16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
Did Joseph say he kept the Sabbath? No. As far as the scripture quoted here I'm pretty much unimpressed with most adventists in these threads how they ignore scriptures they themselves quote to try and lambast those who disagree with their twisted doctrine.Oh! So with Joseph would be in regards of what? Peanuts! Why was it written?????
Tim. 3:
16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
Moses is saying they were not included in obligation to the law.+It is not a confession but a fact! Moses is not saying there was no law, How else would Joseph say that He could not sin against God! Because the woman was too beautiful
The web weaving is done by you and it is not strong enough to hold any potential prey.We are dealing with God!!!! Does God change????????? Is our God seen as a God with no laws, then changes His mind and says, here are some laws and then again. look forget those laws. Is that the picture of God describe in our bibles???? What a tangle web we weave!
Oh, get a grip.+It is not a confession but a fact! Moses is not saying there was no law, How else would Joseph say that He could not sin against God! Because the woman was too beautiful
Yesterday as a matter of fact.God Himself does not change, but He certainly requires different things of different people.
Have you marched around Jericho lately?
And by different posters. Maybe it is more wide spread then Elder thinks.Oh, get a grip.
It isn't as if this hasn't been shown to you at least a hundred times since you joined CF.
- Moses specified the Ten Commandments didn't exist prior to his own generation (Deuteronomy 5:2-3).
- Paul testified of the span of 430 years between Abraham and the Law (Galatians 3:16-17).
- Paul also testified sin existed before the Law did (Romans 5:13).
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