This line of argument is way off. It is called translating for a reason. It is precisely the job of the translators to provide people of other languages what the current meaning of the passage is.
Just to simply state that a word did not exist two thousand years ago is an invalid argument.
Words did exist, they just weren't used in that passage. And the more pertinent issue is that often people try to use outdated or dubious translations, with words that now mean something different in the same languages.
And you seem to assume that the translators always do their job perfectly. Are they superhuman?
Take Romans11:11 as a prime example:
1975 New King James: I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles.
1611 King James: I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
1894 Scrivener New Testament: λεγω ουν μη επταισαν ινα πεσωσιν μη γενοιτο αλλα τω αυτων παραπτωματι η σωτηρια τοις εθνεσιν εις το παραζηλωσαι αυτους
1550 Stephanus New Testament: λεγω ουν μη επταισαν ινα πεσωσιν μη γενοιτο αλλα τω αυτων παραπτωματι η σωτηρια τοις εθνεσιν εις το παραζηλωσαι αυτους
Now, if you can't read Greek, you're either going to have to get someone else to translate or take my word here. My point is this:
In the 344 years between the two Greek translations being written, neither have changed a single word.
In the 364 years between the two King James Versions being written, they have changed.
But that's not the most interesting bit: both King James Versions (and many other translations based off them) include, highlighted in red, words that are translated in two different ways, because language use has changed. They've also changed the format into a rhetorical/answered question.
The verb in question can, and has been in bible versions,
translated into the following English meanings:
[FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]
KJV (630) - God forbid + (3361), 15; arise, 13; be, 255; be done, 63; be fulfilled, 3; be made, 69; be married to, 3; be preferred, 3; become, 47; come, 52; come to pass, 82; done, 2; have, 5; misc, 4; not tr, 14; [/FONT][FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]
NAS (487) - accomplished, 1; appeared, 3; arise, 1; arises, 2; arose, 6; arrived, 3; became, 53; become, 83; becomes, 8; becoming, 2; been, 12; been brought, 1; been done, 1; been made, 2; been...came, 1; began, 1; behaved, 1; being, 2; being carried, 1; being done, 2; being made, 2; born, 5; breaking, 1; came, 45; came into being, 2; came to pass, 2; come, 16; come into being, 1; comes, 1; comes to pass, 1; coming, 1; dawn, 1; decided, 1; developing, 1; done, 20; drawing, 1; during, 1; elapsed, 1; existed, 1; falling, 1; feeling, 1; fell, 6; finished, 1; followed, 1; formed, 3; found, 2; get, 4; give, 1; got, 1; granted, 1; grown, 1; had, 1; happen, 6; happened, 46; happening, 5; happens, 3; has, 3; join, 1; joined, 3; made, 15; occur, 3; occurred, 18; performed, 4; prove, 7; proved, 6; proving, 1; put, 1; reached, 2; realized, 1; results, 2; show, 1; spent, 1; split, 1; spoken, 1; starting, 1; take place, 16; taken, 2; taken place, 5; takes place, 1; taking place, 3; there arose, 1; thundered, 1; took place, 7; turned, 1; turns, 3; would, 1; [/FONT]
So how do we know, for absolute certain, the translators were correct in their choice of words? And are still correct?
I use this example so that you can see that these arguments are not only present with regards to the "homosexuality" verses. It is not some ignorable conspiracy for homos to twist the Word of God. It is a basic fact due to the nature of the bible.
Want a bigger example of how easily the bible has changed due to man's influence? Go read a Jehovah's Witness bible. They will often tell you that it is great, perfect, really in keeping with the original texts. But they have carefully "translated" some things to suit their beliefs.