MyChainsAreGone
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- Apr 18, 2009
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These two statements are in direct logical and moral conflict with one another.But back to the topic, since people need specifics I'll give you some...
Now is there a scriptural standard? Not officially, ...
If there's no Scriptural standard (which is correct) then there's no need for any "specifics" because by your own admission, they are only your own human reasoning and unbiblical "standard."
You're right... he was just wearing the ephod, and yes, David's genitals would have been clearly visible while he was dancing.Now is there a scriptural standard? Not officially, but I sort of figured out one. Below is the picture of the high priest. In reference to the scandalous incident of David dancing before the Lord in 2 Samuel, King David was wearing "an ephod" like the yellow tunic/apron you see below (just the ephod, but not the other robes pictured in white). But in spite of him wearing an ephod (no other robes) his wife below reacts as if he was just dancing in his underwear or maybe with just a long cloth...
So, Michal was "offended" by David's lack of concern about "exposing himself." That certainly was what she thought of it.2 Samuel 6:14-22
"20 When David returned home to bless his own family, Michal, the daughter of Saul, came out to meet him. She said in disgust, “How distinguished the king of Israel looked today, shamelessly exposing himself to the servant girls like any vulgar person might do!
But what did God think of it? Evidently, it didn't bother God, because there's absolutely no rebuke of David by God... or by a prophet... only by an uppity wife who couldn't control her husband.
And what happened next? Michal was the one that suffered the consequences of for HER attitude... not David!! Michal was childless for the rest of her life. David never suffered any negative consequences at all (other than his wife's rebuke).
No, there's nothing here about standards for attire for men... just as there aren't any standards for attire for women (aside from the avoidance of ostentation).So yes this shows that even guys, especially upper class guys were normally pretty covered up in Bible times.
I challenge to defend that statement.Which shouldn't be surprising because the scriptures tend to imply or associate provocative dress with promiscuity (only the low moral people do it).
I assert that it is utterly false... never does the Bible imply or associate provocative dress with promiscuity, nor does it say that only people of low morals do it.
And for the record, "dressed like a harlot" does not mean "sexually provocative"... it means that it was attire that was culturally known to be worn by women of the night. In other words, there's zero indication about how much skin is showing (that notion is utterly absent in the Bible).
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