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coraline

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"SHORTLY" as used in the Bible. This should put your interpretation to rest:




 
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iamlamad

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How do you know? Are you God?

Why twist the meaning of His plain words?


I am not twisting. We must understand this phrase in light of the REST of His word on end times. And when I read Revelation, the gospels, Paul and Peter, I find there is MUCH prophecy yet to be fulfilled.

If anyone is twisting, it is those who say Revelation is history. Indeed, most of it is still ahead of us.

Perhaps you can do what others have failed to do: put some WRITING behind what you say: SHOW US when each of the trumpet judgments happened in history, then when each of the vial judgments. Since you are so sure these events are history, PROVE IT!

Of course you cannot. No preterist has EVER proved it, because it is impossible to prove FUTURE events happened in the past.

LAMAD
 
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iamlamad

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"SHORTLY" as used in the Bible. This should put your interpretation to rest:





As I said, MEN think of this word "shortly" differently than God. 2000 years IS "shortly" to Him - only two days for Him. If I promised someone to come shortly and came in two days, they would have no problems. Jesus will come again "shortly," within 2000 years.

LAMAD
 
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coraline

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I am not twisting. We must understand this phrase in light of the REST of His word on end times. And when I read Revelation, the gospels, Paul and Peter, I find there is MUCH prophecy yet to be fulfilled.

If anyone is twisting, it is those who say Revelation is history. Indeed, most of it is still ahead of us.

Perhaps you can do what others have failed to do: put some WRITING behind what you say: SHOW US when each of the trumpet judgments happened in history, then when each of the vial judgments. Since you are so sure these events are history, PROVE IT!

Of course you cannot. No preterist has EVER proved it, because it is impossible to prove FUTURE events happened in the past.

LAMAD

I don't need to add anything in writing to God's words.

The Bible is clear. The early church fathers elasticized what Jesus told his apostles & disciples 2,000 years ago now.

What needed adjustment was their evaluation of the "nature" of His coming.

When Christ did not return in the physical manner that they grossly misunderstood, the delay factor has been for 2,000 years now, according to tradition, as a result.

I know I'm not waiting for the grace & blessings from Christ I already have!

Thank you Lord!
 
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iamlamad

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I don't need to add anything in writing to God's words.

The Bible is clear. The early church fathers elasticized what Jesus told his apostles & disciples 2,000 years ago now.

What needed adjustment was their evaluation of the "nature" of His coming.

When Christ did not return in the physical manner that they grossly misunderstood, the delay factor has been for 2,000 years now, according to tradition, as a result.

I know I'm not waiting for the grace & blessings from Christ I already have!

Thank you Lord!

Paul did a good job of telling us what His pretrib coming FOR His bride will be like, and John did a good job of showing us what His coming after the trib WITH His bride will be like. Somehow, I don't think you AGREE with Paul and John.

LAMAD
 
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yeshuasavedme

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How do you know? Are you God?

Why twist the meaning of His plain words?
God has shown us what His timeline is like, compared to ours, in many Scriptures.

In Psalm 37, David prophesies by the HolySpirit that the wicked will soon be removed from the earth, and diligent search will not find his place.

That prophecy is going to be fulfilled when the LORD Jesus returns to the earth to set up His millennial kingdom on earth.
 
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coraline

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Paul did a good job of telling us what His pretrib coming FOR His bride will be like, and John did a good job of showing us what His coming after the trib WITH His bride will be like. Somehow, I don't think you AGREE with Paul and John.

LAMAD

~The metaphor ~

It was the only wedding I was invited to where I received the gift!

The free gift.

xnvz.gif
 
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ebedmelech

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Yes, he does.



Yes, I do.



Yes, he was and still is.

Now, do you have the source for this 'change' in the understanding of this subject?
Where is the change? What you have is opposing understandings of the passage.
 
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L0U

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ebedmelech said:
Where is the change? What you have is opposing understandings of the passage.

Post #295
There is no prophecy about antichrist...it's total "eschatological fabrication" John told us in 1 John 4 and 2 John 1 that spirit of antichrist, as well as antichrist was already in the world!

In order for someone to accuse a thing to be a 'total fabrication' certainly you must be able to show a point in time where it was fabricated an so 'changing' the meaning.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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When Jesus ascended 3000 people were saved in one sermon...because Satan was bound by the gospel in each one.
Your posts are filled with "wordcrafting" and twist plain things to confused things.

3000 Jews were added to the Church. They were Jews. They were not lost. The proclamation of the Gospel is not a new, never before known thing, but the fulfillment of what God promised in Genesis 3. "To the Jew first, and also to the Gentile".
The promise is come.
To say the Jews were lost is against all sound doctrine. They who believed the Good news of the fulfilled promise that the Messiah is come and fulfilled the Atonement are born again in Spirit; which was the promise of the name "Israel" given to the Jews, first -and is the adoption into His one living Spirit, we still await the adoption body of flesh which will not be named Adam, but "Israel"
Genesis 5:2; male and female made HE them and called their name Adam"...the New Man is ISrael, and the male and the female are called "Israel when the body is completely adopted by regeneration of it -that is the "Hope" of the Church.
.

[/quote]
Greek transliterated word Jesus is the Hebrew "Yeshua", which means "Salvation". His name does not mean "YHWH is salvation", but "Salvation". that is an error you were taught wrongly, but is not what the Word says.
When Moses renamed the son of Nun, his name was Yeshua/Hosea/ the same as the transliterated Jesus, and means "salvation". Moses changed his name to "God is salvation".
Joshua's name in the Greek NT is translated "Osee", and Jesus was called Osee in Greek writings, also. He is still called "Osee in several languages, or derivations of it, like "Isa".

Num 13:16 These are the names of the men which Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Oshea the son of Nun Jehoshua...


Israel means literally "strive with God"...so your first error is thinking that's Jesus...because Jesus has His name which literally means..."YHWH is Salvation". Jesus is not Israel!
Now you are messing with the Word of God big time and changing the message of "Salvation by adoption into the New Man Name".

Israel is three Hebrew words "Ish -Sar[ah] -El", contracted to
יִשְׂרָאֵל

Adam was the first "ish" human
the "sarah" is power, and prince is sar
El is "mighty" -and He is the Mighty God, Israel,
in Genesis 32, when the name of God who was to come was revealed to Jacob, and invoked over him, he built a memorial altar and named it אל אלהי ישראל; which is "God, the mighty God, Israel".
Isaiah 49 says Jesus is Israel. That is the name of the New Man flesh who is Christ come in that flesh of New Man creation prepared in the womb of the virgin, for Him to put on like a garment.

In Isaiah 59, we see YHWH put on the garment of "Yeshua/Salvation" to come as Redeemer/Kinsman to the Adam: as the brother who has the power, the life, and the will to ransom his/Adam's lost kingdom and seed, back, "for the Glory".

 
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ebedmelech

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Post #295


In order for someone to accuse a thing to be a 'total fabrication' certainly you must be able to show a point in time where it was fabricated an so 'changing' the meaning.
Check out John Nelson Darby and Charles I Scofield.
 
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ebedmelech

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Your posts are filled with "wordcrafting" and twist plain things to confused things.
Well...let's examine that.
3000 Jews were added to the Church. They were Jews. They were not lost. The proclamation of the Gospel is not a new, never before known thing, but the fulfillment of what God promised in Genesis 3. "To the Jew first, and also to the Gentile".
You're back into your "Jewish spin". Those 3000 Jews were as lost as anyone else! If that is not the case why does the scripture say they were saved on that day? Why did Peter tell them to repent? Peter tells them right there, they crucified Jesus their Messiah!!! What saved people does that???

At this point the need here is for you not to *spin* what scripture says. Acts 2:40 says:
40 And with many other words he solemnly testified and kept on exhorting them, saying, “Be saved from this perverse generation!”

You can't be saved unless your lost yeshuasavedme! Those Jews are the beginning of the birth church. Jesus told the 11 before He ascended to start in Jerusalem preaching the gospel. They WERE NOT SAVED... until that day...it plainly says that!
The promise is come.
The promise came! The promise is God saying to Abraham "In Isaac will your descendants be named". Jesus is the promise yeshuasavedme! The promise to Abraham is...that in him "all the nations of the earth will be blessed". How does that happen without Jesus???
To say the Jews were lost is against all sound doctrine. They who believed the Good news of the fulfilled promise that the Messiah is come and fulfilled the Atonement are born again in Spirit; which was the promise of the name "Israel" given to the Jews, first -and is the adoption into His one living Spirit, we still await the adoption body of flesh which will not be named Adam, but "Israel"
That's when they became saved yeshuasavedme! They were NOT saved before that. You talk about me *wordcrafting* and then you post something totally contrary to what scripture says. Do you read Acts 2 the way it is written...OR...they way you want it to be written? These are statements Peter says to them in Acts 2:

2:22, 23
22 “Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know—
23 this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.


If they were saved why, is Peter telling them they killed Jesus?

Acts 2:36, 37
36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ—this Jesus whom you crucified.”
37 Now when they heard this, they were pierced to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, “Brethren, what shall we do?”


Now pay attention to Peter's answer...Acts 2:38, 39
38 Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
39 For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself.”


I think that makes the point on the fact that those Jews were lost and needed to be saved just like you and I...and that "the promise" is Jesus. Get into your bible. stop with you "Jewish bias", and realize what the scripture teaches. Jews and Gentiles are no different...they are both sinfi=ul people in need of a savior, and THAT SAVIOR IS JESUS...HE IS "THE PROMISE".
Genesis 5:2; male and female made HE them and called their name Adam"...the New Man is ISrael, and the male and the female are called "Israel when the body is completely adopted by regeneration of it -that is the "Hope" of the Church.
Here we go! Where in the world do you get that from? You don't even read the name Israel until God changes Jacob's name to that after Jacob wrestles with God all night in Genesis 33:28! So that refutes you right there.

You chop up Genesis 5:2 and try to make Israel a *New Man* there???. Do you realize this is after the curse of sin entered the world...which Adam and Eve caused in disobedience to God? You're TRULY the one doing the *wordcrafting* yeshuasavedme! There's nothing there in Genesis 5:2, that says *New Man*! Meantime...I showed that Ephesians 2:15 definietley says that Jews and Gentiles are made into ONE NEW MAN through Christ...and that is the church!

Greek transliterated word Jesus is the Hebrew "Yeshua", which means "Salvation". His name does not mean "YHWH is salvation", but "Salvation". that is an error you were taught wrongly, but is not what the Word says.
When Moses renamed the son of Nun, his name was Yeshua/Hosea/ the same as the transliterated Jesus, and means "salvation". Moses changed his name to "God is salvation".
Joshua's name in the Greek NT is translated "Osee", and Jesus was called Osee in Greek writings, also. He is still called "Osee in several languages, or derivations of it, like "Isa".

Num 13:16 These are the names of the men which Moses sent to spy out the land. And Moses called Oshea the son of Nun Jehoshua...
Let me break in at this point...and help you out here. You're cherry picking! Did you even bother to RESEARCH this through Blue Letter Bible? I know you didn't...so let's start from the beginning:

"Jesus" is the Greek translation of "Joshua"...so you skipped a part! Now...this is how Blue Letter Bible says it:
Greek Lexicon :: G2424 (NASB)

There's also "Vines Expository Dictionary", which says:
Jesus:
is a transliteration of the Heb. "Joshua," meaning "Jehovah is salvation," i.e., "is the Savior," "a common name among the Jews, e.g., Exd 17:9; Luk 3:29 (RV); Col 4:11. It was given to the Son of God in Incarnation as His personal name, in obedience to the command of an angel to Joseph, the husband of His Mother, Mary, shortly before He was born, Mat 1:21. By it He is spoken of throughout the Gospel narratives generally, but not without exception, as in Mar 16:19, 20; Luk 7:13, and a dozen other places in that Gospel, and a few in John.

Now...since "Joshua" is translated Iesous in Greek, which is "Jesus" in English, lets look at what "Joshua", which is Yĕhowshuwa` in Hebrew means "Blue Letter Bible:
Hebrew Lexicon :: H3091 (NASB)

So...indeed what I said is correct! Jesus means "YHWH is salvation"!

Now you are messing with the Word of God big time and changing the message of "Salvation by adoption into the New Man Name".
Actually it is you who won't let your pride go. I've just shown from the SAME RESOURCE (Blue Letter Bible), that you have been either erroneous or disingenuous in making your argument. I don't know which...but you do.
Israel is three Hebrew words "Ish -Sar[ah] -El", contracted to
יִשְׂרָאֵל
In this case you're making my point. Let's look at Blue Letter Bible. It says of "Israel":
Hebrew Lexicon :: H3478 (NASB)

Now...you're correct when you says "Sar[ah]" because that is the root of "Israel"...of that Blue Letter Bible says:
Hebrew Lexicon :: H8280 (NASB)

So once again my point is well made! Israel is the name God gave Jacob after he wrestled with God all night. Genesis 32:26-28:
26 Then he said, “Let me go, for the dawn is breaking.” But he said, “I will not let you go unless you bless me.”
27 So he said to him, “What is your name?” And he said, “Jacob.”
28 He said, “Your name shall no longer be Jacob, but Israel; for you have striven with God and with men and have prevailed.”


So no...you're wrong, I'm not "messing with the word of God"...I'm rightly dividing it!!!:thumbsup:
Adam was the first "ish" human
the "sarah" is power, and prince is sar
El is "mighty" -and He is the Mighty God, Israel,
in Genesis 32, when the name of God who was to come was revealed to Jacob, and invoked over him, he built a memorial altar and named it אל אלהי ישראל; which is "God, the mighty God, Israel".
Isaiah 49 says Jesus is Israel. That is the name of the New Man flesh who is Christ come in that flesh of New Man creation prepared in the womb of the virgin, for Him to put on like a garment.

In Isaiah 59, we see YHWH put on the garment of "Yeshua/Salvation" to come as Redeemer/Kinsman to the Adam: as the brother who has the power, the life, and the will to ransom his/Adam's lost kingdom and seed, back, "for the Glory".

You're flat crafting now! Adam was THE SON OF GOD...because God created Him. It flat says so in the genealogy of Jesus in Luke 3:38:
38 the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam,the son of God.

Let's take it a step further though. I pointed you to Romans 5 in my first post...but obviously you didn't go there or you didn't like what it said, so I will lay it out here. Romans 5:12-14 is showing that Adam was a "type of Christ". However through his fall Adam could no longer be that:
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.


That's why Jesus means "YHWH (Jehovah) is salvation". I stand on what I said!
 
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ebedmelech

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Think this again.

Hint: Subtract about 1700 years and start your search there.
How about you prove 1700 years earlier that eschatology was taught, because I'm certainly not aware of it.

Provide your proof...:thumbsup:
 
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ebedmelech

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He means the 2nd and 3rd gen patristics.
Yes...I already knew when LOU said "1700 years earlier" that's where he was going...but that is not going to be where dispensational eschatology started.

Granted, there are those who contrive certain aspects of the early fathers teaching to be that, but that would not be true.

I await LOU's response.
 
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