we know Jesus wasn’t talking literally about the gospel going to all 7 continents in the OD, but hyperbolically, as was common in ancient times. We can deduce this because:
1.) it would occur within his audiences generation (matthew 24:34)
Matthew 24:33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Obviously, verse 36 is involving what verse 34 is involving. To apply verse 36 to any events in the first century makes zero sense. If verse 36 is not involving the first century, but that verse 34 is, it makes even less sense, since this would have Jesus all over the place here. One minute He is meaning events pertaining to the first century(verse 34), the next minute is meaning events pertaining to beyond that of the first century(verse 36). Thus Jesus is all over the place and is confusing us rather than enlightening us.
2.) the Greek word for “earth” In matthew 24:14 is οἰκουμένη, which was commonly used for the known (Roman) world, not the entire globe.
“properly: the land that is being inhabited, the land in a state of habitation), the inhabited world, that is, the Roman world, for all outside it was regarded as of no account.”
3.) Paul confirms it went to every creature under heaven and to the whole world prior to the fall of the temple and great tribulation of Jerusalem. (Romans 10:18, Colossians 1:23).
Jesus speaking hyperbolically and Paul declaring it fulfilled in the first century doesn’t preclude the gospel from continuing to spread because there is no end to the “increase” of his government
But what about when that same Greek word is used in passages such as the following? How do these following passages further strengthen what you are arguing?
Luke 4:5 And the devil, taking him up into an high mountain, shewed unto him all the kingdoms of the world(oikoumene) in a moment of time.
Revelation 16:14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world(oikoumene), to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.
Luke 21:26 Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth(oikoumene): for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.
As to Luke 21:26, Matthew 24:29 records that this is immediately after the tribulation of those days. And both Matthew 24 and Luke 21 record that this precedes the coming that follows it. What coming in any sense already followed after what is recorded in Luke 21:26? Obviously, regardless what sense one takes this coming to be involving, it is still a coming that never occurs during the tribulation of those days, but is a coming that occurs after the tribulation of those days, and after Luke 21:26 is meaning.