Al the verses you quoted above have to be taken in context and some of them need to be explained. For example the verse "without holiness no man shall see the Lord." What is your definition of Holiness?
Not true. You are taking Hebrews 12:14 out of context.
First, the verse itself does not support a “
Sin and Still Be Saved Type Belief” on this verse (
or a belief that says we are holy by believing in Jesus and his holiness alone and not in what we do).
Let's read the verse:
“Follow peace with all men, and holiness,
without which no man shall see the Lord:” (Hebrews 12:14).
The verse says:
(a) Follow peace with all men, and:
(b) Follow holiness
Without which no man shall see the Lord.
Okay. So even if you wanted the word “
holiness” in this verse to refer to “
believing in the holiness of Jesus and not what I do or despite my sin” the words “
follow after peace with all men” is still in the verse and is a problem for your belief to resolve. In other words, if a believer is not “
following after peace with all men,” then they will not see the Lord. “
Follow after peace with all men,” suggests something I have to do. For sometimes we have to reconcile with men sometimes in order to make peace with them. We have to love our enemies (by our loving actions) in order to maintain peace between us and them. If not, then no man shall see the Lord.
Second, the whole chapter is talking about sin vs. doing good. It's not talking about just trusting in the holiness of Jesus while we do not have to lift a finger for God or by our sinning. No such context exists in Hebrews 12 that would support this erroneous viewpoint. Surely if you read the chapter recently, you should be aware of this. But you have to isolate verses out of their context to make them work.
You said:
"Not every one which saith unto me Lord, Lord shall enter into the Kingdom of Heaven but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in Heaven." So what is the Fathers will? Let's see if we can find it. Oh, here it is "And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which He hath given me I should lose nothing but should raise it up again at the last day. And this is the will of Him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son and believeth on Him may have everlasting life, and I will raise him up at the last day." Yes, we're supposed to do the will of the Father to enter the kingdom of Heaven, but the Father's will is simply to believe in Jesus, so all that is merely proof that Jesus alone saves.
Three problems here:
Problem #1. You are wrongfully assuming that the will of the Father is for us to believe in Him alone (When in reality it is the will of the Father to both believe and to cooperate with God in the Sanctification Process).
Problem #2. You automatically wrongfully assume that the Father's will is all who the Father gives to Jesus that He will lose nothing (even if they sin).
Problem #3. You are unaware of select words that appear in John 6 that should not exist if a “sin and still be saved belief” was true.
While it is true that the will of the Father is to believe on Him (Jesus) of which the Father sent (John 6:29), this would imply not only believing in the person of Jesus for salvation but it would imply believing in doing what He told us to do, as well. For if we disobey Jesus, we really do not trust in Him or believe in Him.
Also, what is another aspect of the will of the Father?
It is Sanctification.
“For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication:” (1 Thessalonians 4:3).
The Father is God in this verse. So the context of Sanctification in this verse is living holy because it refers to how a believer is to abstain from fornication. So our Sanctification is the will of God the Father, and not just a belief alone in Jesus that is devoid of any loyalty to Him. For even the demons believe and tremble.
John 6:37-40 says,
37 "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day."
First, what does Jesus mean by,
“All that the Father giveth me come to me?”
Well, we have to understand that the Father elects those based on His future foreknowledge of our free will choice concerning Him (
1 Peter 1:2) (
Deuteronomy 30:19). Also, we also have to understand that not everyone is going to be saved; However, it is God's will that all people should be saved, though (
1 Timothy 2:4) (
2 Peter 3:9) (
Revelation 22:17). This is why we read in Scripture about how many are called, but few are chosen (
Matthew 20:16).
Same meanings since all are given the chance to have life through Jesus. But those who are His have come so willingly in faith, repenting and turning with a sincere heart; forever to the submission of God’s commandments and desires.
Verse 39 implies that it is possible for Jesus to lose some of the flock. If it were not so, He would have said so. But if what you say is true, then Jesus would have said,
"I WILL lose nothing."
However, that is not what Jesus said. Jesus says,
"I SHOULD lose nothing."
John 6:39 (KJV) says,
"And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me
I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day."
Second, eternal life here is not a guarantee. Jesus says in verse 40
"MAY have everlasting life".
John 6:40
"And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son,
and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day."
In other words, Jesus should lose none and all who are His should be raised, because they should all continue in the righteousness God gave them through the sacrifice of Jesus. It’s not that Jesus isn’t capable of keeping up with His sheep; it’s that He never keeps His sheep against their wills. How so?
Well, we see in Scripture that the Father gave all of the disciples to Jesus; However, Jesus kept them all except Judas, though.
John 17:12 says:
"While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled."
Now, allow me to rephrase this in modern-terminology:
While I was with the marbles in the world, I kept them. Those marbles that you gave me I kept, and none are lost, but the green marble.
And OSAS terminology:
While I was with the marbles in the world, I kept them. Those marbles that you gave me I kept, and none are lost, except for the green marble that you never gave me.
Do you see now how OSAS doesn't make any sense?
Old Source Link Used:
http://conditionalsalvation.com/
(Note: Website no longer active)
You said:
You depart from iniquity by confessing Christ.
What verse or passage tells you that?
You said:
Once we receive Jesus we are no longer sinners because Jesus cleanses us from all sin.
Actually, the verse that says where Jesus cleanses us from all sin is 1 John 1:7; But I doubt you believe what it says because it runs contrary to your belief. 1 John 1:7 says:
“But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.” (1 John 1:7).
So while we do need to receive Jesus as a part of our Initial Salvation, we also have to walk in the light as He is in the light, too.
For by walking in the light as He is in the light, the blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sin.
What is walking in the light mean?
According to 1 John 2:9-11, it is essentially saying (using indirect words) that walking in the light = loving your brother.
In other words, we have to love our brother in order for the blood of Jesus to cleanse us from all sin. More proof?
1 John 3:15 says, “Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him.”
1 John 3:10 says, “In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.”
Boom. Your world view should be tumbling down like a ton of bricks right now if you truly believe these verses plainly.
You said:
In John 8 a lot of people think the verse "Neither do I condemn thee go, and sin no more". is the main lesson of this example of the woman caught in the act of adulteries. But the main lesson is where He tells the scribes and Pharisees "he that is without sin among you let him cast the first stone." The main point being that the religious leaders were just as much sinners as the adulteress woman. The lesson being that it is wrong to condemn others who may not be living the Holy and righteous life that you think they should be, cause we're all just as much sinners as the next guy.
The words of Jesus that say, “
sin no more” are just as equally true as his words to the Pharisees to cast a stone if they are without sin.
We all have sinned at one point in our lives. Believers who are faithful to the Lord have sinned against the Lord as a part of their past life before they came to Christ. So they obviously are not without sin, but they can “sin no more” (in regards to grievous sin, which are sins that the Bible clearly condemns with warnings of hellfire and condemnation) in their present tense walk with God (after being saved by God's grace).
Now, I have no problem believing both truths expressed in John 8. But you have to ignore the words of Jesus that say, “
sin no more” in order to make your belief work. I don't have such a problem. I just read and believe all of what Jesus has said and I do not seek to change His words or de-emphasize them in any way. All of what He said was true. So no. You are taking Scripture out of context to make your belief work here, dear sir.
