Also, OT, the last time you asked for Scripture I explained again about Mt24. As you can see from my header, I have 6K posts here. I would say...2000 of them mention this treatment of Mt24. The question for you is: is that enough?
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The first two verses of Mt 24 were fulfilled in AD 70. The rest of the chapter concerns the tribulation and is future.re knowing what is future in Mt24.
First, the questions are immediate and practical. What are they supposed to do when the temple is going to be leveled. He tells them. There are number of related things to watch out for. All of Mt24A (up to v29) is a package. Then 'right after' the distress of those days, Jesus starts speaking of universal things beyond Judea. At least the initial declaration is 'right after.' But then he allows for the day of judgement to be distant, both expressly and in the attentive servants parable.
Mt24 spoken in 33 AD. It expects the DofJ in that generation, and the Return right after the DofJ.
The Gospel occurs in 33 AD.
The Great Revolt begins 66 AD
Christians leave Jerusalem in 68.
The revolt is crushed and Jerusalem destroyed in 70.
The universal day of judgement does not occur 'right after' the DofJ, as allowed.
Time goes on til today.
Also, OT, the last time you asked for Scripture I explained again about Mt24. As you can see from my header, I have 6K posts here. I would say...2000 of them mention this treatment of Mt24. The question for you is: is that enough?
You have been wrong about it 2000 times.Also, OT, the last time you asked for Scripture I explained again about Mt24. As you can see from my header, I have 6K posts here. I would say...2000 of them mention this treatment of Mt24. The question for you is: is that enough?
Work on being observant and attentive.
The first two verses of Mt 24 were fulfilled in AD 70.
So if Revelation is about 70 A.D. how come it doesn't mention the Temple and Jerusalem being destroyed, or the Jews being carried away captive? All things addressed in Luke 21.Dunbar,
other than the day of judgement for the whole earth, I don't know what would need to be fulfilled. The ordinary-language passages of the NT (not the Rev) show nothing Judaic: Rom 3, 8, I Cor 15, Heb 9, 2 Pet 3. Mt24B (after v 29 when its setting turns global) does not.
You have assumed that the Rev is a prediction of the future instead of a way of seeing the awful events in Judea in the generation after Christ. That needs to be addressed.
Interplanner said in post 71:
"Babylon" is cast down!
Interplanner said in post 71:
The harlot rides the beast and is then devoured by the beast.
Mt 24:1-2 was fulfilled in AD 70. The rest of the chapter is about the tribulation and is in the future!People who are full preterists are not allowed to post here for the very essential reason that there is not yet a new heaven and earth, which the passage is about.
It seems you need to distinguish between kinds. I'm the kind, because of historical study, who says that Mt24A (before v29) is about 1st century Judea and is also the scene that Dan 9 described. Mt24B is after v29, was expected to be right after A, but was allowed to delay. And did.
Then there is the BW kind. He says only Lk 21 has to do with 1st century Judea. (Mt 24, Mk 13 and Lk 21 being very similar, right?) So I guess you'd call him a Lk 21 preterist.
One reason he does that (based on comments over the past 2 days) is to "protect" the expression "the abomination that desolates" from any past tense association so that it is a future event in Israel. I do not.
People who are full preterists are not allowed to post here for the very essential reason that there is not yet a new heaven and earth, which the passage is about.
It seems you need to distinguish between kinds. I'm the kind, because of historical study, who says that Mt24A (before v29) is about 1st century Judea and is also the scene that Dan 9 described. Mt24B is after v29, was expected to be right after A, but was allowed to delay. And did.
Then there is the BW kind. He says only Lk 21 has to do with 1st century Judea. (Mt 24, Mk 13 and Lk 21 being very similar, right?) So I guess you'd call him a Lk 21 preterist.
One reason he does that (based on comments over the past 2 days) is to "protect" the expression "the abomination that desolates" from any past tense association so that it is a future event in Israel. I do not.
Interplanner can also read the mind of Jeremiah.I find it amazing that you understand my thinking process so much better than I do.
To explain my past comments in better detail, Luke 21:8-19 pertain to all time, and an explanation that great disasters do not indicate that the end is near. Then Luke 21:20-24a speak of the events of A.D. 70, and neither Matthew 24 nor Mark 13 quotes this portion of the answer Jesus gave to the disciple's three part question.
Mt 24:1-2 was fulfilled in AD 70.