JohnR7

Well-Known Member
Feb 9, 2002
25,258
209
Ohio
✟29,532.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Upvote 0

Lignoba

Well-Known Member
Sep 17, 2005
904
23
37
✟1,322.00
Faith
Agnostic
Politics
US-Others
JohnR7 said:
Translations change, because the English language changes. But the Bible remains consistant and unchanged from the beginning.

How could it remain unchanged when bibles were being translated from other english bibles. Either they are not the same, or the language is different and cannot be interpreted using modern language and the meaning is not the same.
 
Upvote 0

lightencandle

Active Member
Apr 9, 2006
75
4
New York
Visit site
✟15,215.00
Faith
Seeker
Marital Status
Single
Politics
US-Democrat
Lignoba said:
How could it remain unchanged when bibles were being translated from other english bibles. Either they are not the same, or the language is different and cannot be interpreted using modern language and the meaning is not the same.


Does it matter?
Truth cannot change.
If the Bible contains truth, than no matter how many times it is retranslated, the truth remains the same.
 
Upvote 0

JohnR7

Well-Known Member
Feb 9, 2002
25,258
209
Ohio
✟29,532.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Lignoba said:
How could it remain unchanged when bibles were being translated from other english bibles.

The origional language has not changed. In fact the Hebrew section of the Bible only uses 5000 words. The Greek is a lot more exacting of a language. It was a military language used to conquer the world. For example in the Greek there are over 32 words that are translated into the English word: "GO". go up, go down, go around, go though, go over, go under and so on.

We know that the Hebrew Bible has not changed because they found the dead sea scrolls from over 2500 years ago, so they can verify that it has not changed. The Hebrew scribes were very exacting not to make errors or changes in the sacred scriptures.
 
Upvote 0

Lignoba

Well-Known Member
Sep 17, 2005
904
23
37
✟1,322.00
Faith
Agnostic
Politics
US-Others
JohnR7 said:
The origional language has not changed. In fact the Hebrew section of the Bible only uses 5000 words. The Greek is a lot more exacting of a language. It was a military language used to conquer the world. For example in the Greek there are over 32 words that are translated into the English word: "GO". go up, go down, go around, go though, go over, go under and so on.

We know that the Hebrew Bible has not changed because they found the dead sea scrolls from over 2500 years ago, so they can verify that it has not changed. The Hebrew scribes were very exacting not to make errors or changes in the sacred scriptures.

Hebrew scribes are men and are open to temptation. What if one of them changed it for his own twisted goals?
 
Upvote 0

faster_jackrabbit

IPU Stable Hand
Mar 10, 2006
12,791
408
Houston Texas vicinity
✟22,566.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
lightencandle said:
But the bible doesn't say that dinosaures lived with man during the times the books were written.
So what does it say about dinosaurs, and can whatever it talks about be positively identified as dinosaurs?
 
Upvote 0

JohnR7

Well-Known Member
Feb 9, 2002
25,258
209
Ohio
✟29,532.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Lignoba said:
Man is fallible, and Bible translations were carried out by man.

Fallen man is fallible, that is why we must be born again to become a child of God.

Matthew 5:48
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

The Bible would not tell us to be "perfect" if we were not able to be perfect. Although the meaning of the word perfect in the Bible maybe different from the meaning that you use. In the Bible it means to be whole, compleat and mature like a flower in full bloom. Or like a tree that is producing it's fruit in due season.
 
Upvote 0

Lignoba

Well-Known Member
Sep 17, 2005
904
23
37
✟1,322.00
Faith
Agnostic
Politics
US-Others
JohnR7 said:
Fallen man is fallible, that is why we must be born again to become a child of God.

Matthew 5:48
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

The Bible would not tell us to be "perfect" if we were not able to be perfect. Although the meaning of the word perfect in the Bible maybe different from the meaning that you use. In the Bible it means to be whole, compleat and mature like a flower in full bloom. Or like a tree that is producing it's fruit in due season.

ANY man is faillible. I have seen so called "born again christians" use drugs, drink alcohol, lie cheat and steal. Any man is fallible, and to tell me otherwise is ignorance and denial.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

JohnR7

Well-Known Member
Feb 9, 2002
25,258
209
Ohio
✟29,532.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Lignoba said:
Hebrew scribes are men and are open to temptation. What if one of them changed it for his own twisted goals?

The dead sea scrolls testify to the consistancy of the Hebrew scriptures. (The Ancient Library of Qumran)

Moses gave us God's whole plan of salvation. Everything in the Bible can be found in the first five books of the Bible. In some cases Moses may have only given us a sentance or two and later on there will be two or three chapters written on the subject.

The point is there are many, many checks and balances to verify the accuracy of the word of God. Generation after generation have found the Bible to be true and testify to the truthfullness of scripture.
 
Upvote 0

Lignoba

Well-Known Member
Sep 17, 2005
904
23
37
✟1,322.00
Faith
Agnostic
Politics
US-Others
JohnR7 said:
The dead sea scrolls testify to the consistancy of the Hebrew scriptures. (The Ancient Library of Qumran)

Moses gave us God's whole plan of salvation. Everything in the Bible can be found in the first five books of the Bible. In some cases Moses may have only given us a sentance or two and later on there will be two or three chapters written on the subject.

The point is there are many, many checks and balances to verify the accuracy of the word of God. Generation after generation have found the Bible to be true and testify to the truthfullness of scripture.

Ok, prove to me that the dead scrolls are that old
 
Upvote 0

rmwilliamsll

avid reader
Mar 19, 2004
6,006
334
✟7,946.00
Faith
Calvinist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Green
JohnR7 said:
snip snip to address a single point.

We know that the Hebrew Bible has not changed because they found the dead sea scrolls from over 2500 years ago, so they can verify that it has not changed. The Hebrew scribes were very exacting not to make errors or changes in the sacred scriptures.

well, sticking just to the Hebrew:

when were the vowel pointings added?
when was the Masoretic text collated?
what is the underlying text for the LXX and why does it differ so much from the Masoretic?
when was the sentence structure added?
when was the verse numbering added?
what Hebrew text was translated to yield the English Bible you use?

when was final canonization? by whom?
why do Protestant and Catholic Bibles differ so much in the OT?

sounds like a whole lot of changing goin' on to me.
the original didn't have vowel markings, sentence structure (no periods etc), probably no word divisions (although it is not as clear in the hebrew as in unical greek). it diverged into at least two major families no later than the 1st C. BC (Hebrew underneath LXX from the proto-Masoretic) although some scholars think that the Targums represent yet another family.....
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

JohnR7

Well-Known Member
Feb 9, 2002
25,258
209
Ohio
✟29,532.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
faster_jackrabbit said:
What do you consider the beginning? Canonization? Which canonization?

I attended a KJV ONLY church and Bible college. I am a dispensationist, GAP and I lean toward Pentecostal beliefs. We accept the protestant canon just like all the other reformed christian churches do. Although actually I prefer Nikon myself.

Right now we are attending a Pilgram Church, so our beliefs go back at least to the Pilgrams that landed at Plymouth Rocked and went on to found this country.
 
Upvote 0

faster_jackrabbit

IPU Stable Hand
Mar 10, 2006
12,791
408
Houston Texas vicinity
✟22,566.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
JohnR7 said:
Fallen man is fallible, that is why we must be born again to become a child of God.

Matthew 5:48
Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

The Bible would not tell us to be "perfect" if we were not able to be perfect. Although the meaning of the word perfect in the Bible maybe different from the meaning that you use. In the Bible it means to be whole, compleat and mature like a flower in full bloom. Or like a tree that is producing it's fruit in due season.

So you use the bible to determine whether translation errors occurred in the bible or not. Hokay. How do you know a translation error didn't occur in the verse you are quoting?
 
Upvote 0

carmi

Well-Known Member
Nov 1, 2004
13,771
386
✟16,723.00
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
*** Mod Hat On ***

This thread is closed for staff review.

Mod Hat Off ***

Meanwhile have a seat

attachment.php


and relax
 
Upvote 0

carmi

Well-Known Member
Nov 1, 2004
13,771
386
✟16,723.00
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
*** Mod Hat On ***


This thread is re-opened.

However, I would like to point out a couple of things:


Rule 1

Rule 2


Which does not mean to ignore the rest of the rules :)

The next time staff has to go through this thread, it will be closed permanently.


*** Mod Hat Off ***
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums