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Does man have a freewill ?

David Lamb

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Clearly you have decided this is the way you are going to interpret Scripture.

I've already made my point. But I'll share the following "a text without context is a pretext for proof text". It's a quote from a well known theologian (or maybe from a newspaper article).
I agree with "a text without context is a pretext." But providing we make sure that we don't misinterpret texts by quoting them whilst ignoring the context, I don't think it is always necessary to quote a whole passage of Scripture.
 
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Rose_bud

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I agree with "a text without context is a pretext." But providing we make sure that we don't misinterpret texts by quoting them whilst ignoring the context, I don't think it is always necessary to quote a whole passage of Scripture.
Yes, nobody was expecting full exposition of the text. And scriptural points can certainly be presented concisely, but using them as prooftexts implies a lack of contextual consideration, which is precisely the issue being highlighted here.
 
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David Lamb

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Yes, nobody was expecting full exposition of the text. And scriptural points can certainly be presented concisely, but using them as prooftexts implies a lack of contextual consideration, which is precisely the issue being highlighted here.
Yes, so long as you mean either quoting a few surrounding verses, or including a statement such as: "Looking at the surrounding verses indicates that in the context, the verse I quote is referring to such-and-such," then I agree with you, though I would usually give the poster who doesn't provide context the benefit of the doubt, and politely ask them to do so.
 
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Rose_bud

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Yes, so long as you mean either quoting a few surrounding verses, or including a statement such as: "Looking at the surrounding verses indicates that in the context, the verse I quote is referring to such-and-such," then I agree with you, though I would usually give the poster who doesn't provide context the benefit of the doubt, and politely ask them to do so.
The discussion was not about whether we should be presenting full exegesis in dialogue. But I appreciate you desiring to add a disclaimer for clarity. I don't think anyone ever errs in wanting to be clear.

And some posters (including myself) has indeed asked for engagement with the text to which no response has been forthcoming.
 
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Brightfame52

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The false teaching of mans freewill in the matter of salvation denies mans spiritual inability in that by nature he is dead to God.

Sure man has a physical life, but naturally he has no spiritual life, being alienated from the life of God Eph 4:18

Having the understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart:

Coupled with this alienation from the life of God is a darkened understanding, and blindness of heart

The word alienated means:

  1. to be shut out from one's fellowship and intimacy

Paul wrote to the Ephesians that prior to their quickening, they were dead in sin Eph 2:1,5

And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins

Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved)

The word dead nekros:

    1. destitute of life, without life, inanimate
  1. metaph.
    1. spiritually dead
      1. destitute of a life that recognises and is devoted to God, because given up to trespasses and sins
      2. inactive as respects doing right
    2. destitute of force or power, inactive, inoperative

All the above applies to us by nature spiritually

Notice inactive as regards doing right, that is spiritually. It agrees with Rom 3:12

They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.

Now being dead spiritually to God, inactive, how can a person be free to do the good things like hearing the word of God, understanding it, faith in God, repentance toward God.

Freewill denies being dead to God spiritually by nature. 3
 
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Brightfame52

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Hi Brightfame

I thought this was clear earlier, but since you asked.
When we let scripture interpret scripture, we not just cherry-picking verses to support our own ideas. Instead we allow the Bible to speak for itself, in its context tracing the themes and motifs throughout.
For example Judges 14:6 and Philippians 4:13 both speaks of strength.

But the book of Judges has a pattern or cycle of disobedience, judgement, repentance deliverance. Philippians has the theme of serving others like Christ. And Paul using different examples to make this point. Himself, Jesus, Timothy

Judges 14:6 The Spirit of the Lord came powerfully upon him so that he tore the lion apart with his bare hands as he might have torn a young goat. But he told neither his father nor his mother what he had done. 7 Then he went down and talked with the woman, and he liked her.

Philippians 4:13
For I can do everything through Christ, who gives me strength.

Samson's empowerment by the Spirit was a specific instance of God's work, for a specific task to demonstrate to Israel that he would raise up a deliverer when they cried out. Whereas Paul's words about doing all things through Christ are about contentment. God empowering his children to endure good and bad times as we serve others. He was in prison when he wrote this. The context of each passage, informs our understanding of God's character and work. So putting the two together because they appear similar is missing the point.
Now here you go proof texting without presenting what all the various context are. Very hypocritical, to condemn me about it, then turn around and do it yourself.
 
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Rose_bud

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Now here you go proof texting without presenting what all the various context are Very hypocritical, to condemn me about it, then turn around and do it yourself.
Not hypocritical,illustrative. I'm glad it's making sense. In this post #220 I'm actually illustrating the problem with proof texting by comparing Judges 14 and Philippians 4:13. These passages show how similar words don't necessarily mean the same thing, as there contexts differ. The example demonstrates the importance of considering the broader context and the thrust of the books to avoid misinterpretation.
 
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Clare73

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Of course. But, that's not what we're talking about here. I'm saying that He died not for our sins only, Clare73, but for the sins of the whole world. The sins of all people. That some deny Him and don't accept what He did for them does not mean He did not die for their sins.


Why else are they condemned except that they willingly chose not to do what God expected them to do? God certainly does not get angry at people for no reason,
Eph 2:3. . ."by nature objects of wrath. . ." we are born with our nature.

The reason is our nature.
which would be the case if people are born totally depraved and unable to ever repent of their sins and believe unless God causes them to do so. Why would God's wrath be on someone for not repenting and believing if they are not even capable of doing so? That makes no sense whatsoever. Calvinism defies all logic and turns a God who is love (1 John 4:8) into a monster who hates most people for no reason.
 
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Brightfame52

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Not hypocritical,illustrative. I'm glad it's making sense. In this post #220 I'm actually illustrating the problem with proof texting by comparing Judges 14 and Philippians 4:13. These passages show how similar words don't necessarily mean the same thing, as there contexts differ. The example demonstrates the importance of considering the broader context and the thrust of the books to avoid misinterpretation.
You building your case for rejecting scripture truth.
 
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Rose_bud

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You building your case for rejecting scripture truth.
I'm glad it's making sense. Post #220 is the case for how one should reject doctrines that are supported in this way, as it's an example of proof texting and cherry picking.
 
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Brightfame52

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I'm glad it's making sense. Post #220 is the case for how one should reject doctrines that are supported in this way, as it's an example of proof texting and cherry picking.
Yes it makes sense, when you want to reject a truth, tell the person they just proof texting, to make them feel obligated they have to give a summary of the context. Most people dont feel the need to do that. In the final analysis, all that matters is whether the scripture provided was the Truth or not. If you reject it because I just provided the text without providing a context and yet it was true, you still rejected the truth and are accountable for it.
 
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Rose_bud

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Yes it makes sense, when you want to reject a truth, tell the person they just proof texting, to make them feel obligated they have to give a summary of the context. Most people dont feel the need to do that. In the final analysis, all that matters is whether the scripture provided was the Truth or not. If you reject it because I just provided the text without providing a context and yet it was true, you still rejected the truth and are accountable for it.
Ok, I see there is still some misunderstanding. The point of the post 220 was not to reject Scripture's authority, but rather to emphasize the importance of understanding truth in context. Otherwise we can use scripture to say whatever we want it to. A prime example of this is when Satan tempted Jesus by quoting scripture. It was scripture afterall, but the context and reason for using it were misguided. To clarify the point again, I'll emphasize that understanding scripture in context is crucial.
 
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Brightfame52

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Ok, I see there is still some misunderstanding. The point of the post 220 was not to reject Scripture's authority, but rather to emphasize the importance of understanding truth in context. Otherwise we can use scripture to say whatever we want it to. A prime example of this is when Satan tempted Jesus by quoting scripture. It was scripture afterall, but the context and reason for using it were misguided. To clarify the point again, I'll emphasize that understanding scripture in context is crucial.
Okay so see post 225
 
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Brightfame52

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If you've seen, you wouldn't be asking me about your post.
Not really. You said things I basically see all the time. In the final analysis, you as most, make salvation depended on what the person does.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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Eph 2:3. . ."by nature objects of wrath. . ." we are born with our nature.

The reason is our nature.
Yes, we are born with a natural tendency to sin, but we certainly do not sin as babies or as young children who do not even know what sin is. God's wrath is not on us as soon as we are born. That is ridiculous. We're not asked to defy all logic when interpreting scripture. Paul indicated that he did not become dead in sins until he knew what sin was (Romans 7:9-11).

Despite having a natural tendency to sin, that does not give anyone an excuse for not repenting of their sins and for not glorifying God as God and being thankful to Him (Romans 1:18-21), nor any excuse for anyone who hears the gospel to not believe it while accepting Christ as their personal Lord and Savior.
 
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Spiritual Jew

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The false teaching of mans freewill in the matter of salvation denies mans spiritual inability in that by nature he is dead to God.

Sure man has a physical life, but naturally he has no spiritual life, being alienated from the life of God Eph 4:18

Having the understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart:

Coupled with this alienation from the life of God is a darkened understanding, and blindness of heart

The word alienated means:

  1. to be shut out from one's fellowship and intimacy

Paul wrote to the Ephesians that prior to their quickening, they were dead in sin Eph 2:1,5

And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins

Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved)

The word dead nekros:

    1. destitute of life, without life, inanimate
  1. metaph.
    1. spiritually dead
      1. destitute of a life that recognises and is devoted to God, because given up to trespasses and sins
      2. inactive as respects doing right
    2. destitute of force or power, inactive, inoperative

All the above applies to us by nature spiritually

Notice inactive as regards doing right, that is spiritually. It agrees with Rom 3:12

They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.

Now being dead spiritually to God, inactive, how can a person be free to do the good things like hearing the word of God, understanding it, faith in God, repentance toward God.

Freewill denies being dead to God spiritually by nature. 3
You are very lacking in spiritual discernment and you are unteachable. Being spiritually dead in sins has nothing to do with not being able to hear the word of God, understand it and respond to it with repentance and faith. You are making that up. Scripture never teaches that. Being dead in sins simply means to be separated from a personal relationship with God.

But, Jesus said man is spiritually SICK. Calvinists ignore that. A sick person is fully capable of humbling himself and admitting that he can't heal himself and needs the physician to heal him.

Mark 2:16 And when the scribes and Pharisees saw him eat with publicans and sinners, they said unto his disciples, How is it that he eateth and drinketh with publicans and sinners? 17 When Jesus heard it, he saith unto them, They that are whole have no need of the physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

Jesus called sinners to repentance. All people are sinners (Romans 3:23). Therefore, Jesus calls all people to repentance. And He wouldn't do that if not all people could repent. God commands all people everywhere to repent (Acts 17:30) because all people everywhere are capable of doing so. That's why God graciously offers salvation to all people (Titus 2:11) and why Jesus died for the sins of the whole world (1 John 2:1-2).

Jesus said that sinners are spiritually sick and in need of healing from the physician, which is Him. Anyone can call on Him for spiritual healing and deliverance. God loves all people and wants all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:3-6), but He wants people to come to Him willingly. He reaches out to people with His word and the gospel and speaks to people's hearts with His Holy Spirit, but He does not force Himself upon anyone.

Revelation 3:20 Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.

Revelation 22:17 And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.

God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked and wants them to repent before they die! If He only wanted some to be saved who are saved by His choice alone, then surely He would take pleasure in the death of the wicked because them dying in their wickedness would be His will for them. But, it's not His will for them and that's why He takes no pleasure in their death and wants them to repent.

Ezekiel 33:11 Say unto them, As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?
 
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Spiritual Jew

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Not really. You said things I basically see all the time. In the final analysis, you as most, make salvation depended on what the person does.
Clearly, you would not have answered the jailer's question about what he had to do to be saved the same way that Paul and Silas did.

Acts 16:29 Then he called for a light, and sprang in, and came trembling, and fell down before Paul and Silas, 30 And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? 31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.
 
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