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The Righteousness of Christ - Two Sides to the Coin

Dima 26

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It seems that the application of this concept, the imputed righteousness of Christ, has largely been taken up in the atoning and covering sense only - to the exclusion of those works and righteousness that God cultivates in us through Christ. Indeed, the former is certainly one side of the coin, but surely the latter is as necessary for the concept to stand as a coin necessarily must have two faces. The words of the Lord always mean real business: if the purpose of God in Christ is to redeem His people from sin and death, than He means this in its proper sense - to redeem us to Himself in righteousness. Therefore, if clothing is used to portray a type of righteousness in such analogies as in "our righteousness are as filthy rags" and "He has clothed me with the garments of salvation and covered me in a robe of righteousness", than just as our filthy rags were works done by us, so also is the robe of righteousness He gives becomes works done by us. The decisive aspect that makes all the difference in this, however, is that the filthy rags were our doings and wisdom, but the robe of righteousness is the Lord's doing and wisdom in us; one is the ancient rebellion since the days of Eden, the other is the joint fellowship with the Creator God and the acknowledgment of His righteousness.

Of course, I don't mean to say that we must be sinless and perfect for us to have Christ's righteousness imputed to us, rather, this is were the atoning and covering side of the coin steps in. His mercy is the foundation of His dealings with us, to the end that we may be able to grow up into the image of His Son, but this does not make the other side of the equation of none effect, since we are still in the process of growing into His image, and not another. The gospel is the means and righteousness the end.

I know many may not like how this sounds but would shrug it off as though I'm wasting mine time defining what are the elementary principles of the faith. That's fine, but all I ask than, can you say together with me that the imputed righteousness of Christ does in fact have to sides to the equation as outlined above, or not? If not, than a point of contention has in fact been raised, and I'm no longer wasting mine time.
 

NewLifeInChristJesus

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It seems that the application of this concept, the imputed righteousness of Christ, has largely been taken up in the atoning and covering sense only - to the exclusion of those works and righteousness that God cultivates in us through Christ. Indeed, the former is certainly one side of the coin, but surely the latter is as necessary for the concept to stand as a coin necessarily must have two faces. The words of the Lord always mean real business: if the purpose of God in Christ is to redeem His people from sin and death, than He means this in its proper sense - to redeem us to Himself in righteousness. Therefore, if clothing is used to portray a type of righteousness in such analogies as in "our righteousness are as filthy rags" and "He has clothed me with the garments of salvation and covered me in a robe of righteousness", than just as our filthy rags were works done by us, so also is the robe of righteousness He gives becomes works done by us. The decisive aspect that makes all the difference in this, however, is that the filthy rags were our doings and wisdom, but the robe of righteousness is the Lord's doing and wisdom in us; one is the ancient rebellion since the days of Eden, the other is the joint fellowship with the Creator God and the acknowledgment of His righteousness.

Of course, I don't mean to say that we must be sinless and perfect for us to have Christ's righteousness imputed to us, rather, this is were the atoning and covering side of the coin steps in. His mercy is the foundation of His dealings with us, to the end that we may be able to grow up into the image of His Son, but this does not make the other side of the equation of none effect, since we are still in the process of growing into His image, and not another. The gospel is the means and righteousness the end.

I know many may not like how this sounds but would shrug it off as though I'm wasting mine time defining what are the elementary principles of the faith. That's fine, but all I ask than, can you say together with me that the imputed righteousness of Christ does in fact have to sides to the equation as outlined above, or not? If not, than a point of contention has in fact been raised, and I'm no longer wasting mine time.
I looked in my Logos Bible collection and found no verses with the phrase "the righteousness of Christ". But reading your post, it appears you are promoting the doctrine of progressive sanctification which claims that God is progressively cleaning up our filthy flesh (i.e., He is “sanctifying us”) over time, so that day after day we become more and more like Jesus as we grow spiritually. The doctrine is wholly dependent on what I call the gap theory of sin (which measures the size of the “gap” between our actions and the requirements of the law) because the doctrine of progressive sanctification needs a way of assessing progress towards the goal of becoming more like Jesus.

How do you deal with Ephesians 4:24 which says the new man "was created according to God, in true righteousness and holiness"? Specifically, do you not believe the righteousness and holiness of the new man is "true righteousness and holiness"?

How about 2 Corinthians 5:21?

For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him. (2 Co 5:21)​

Do you make its fulfillment escatological?
 
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Dima 26

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I looked in my Logos Bible collection and found no verses with the phrase "the righteousness of Christ". But reading your post, it appears you are promoting the doctrine of progressive sanctification which claims that God is progressively cleaning up our filthy flesh (i.e., He is “sanctifying us”) over time, so that day after day we become more and more like Jesus as we grow spiritually. The doctrine is wholly dependent on what I call the gap theory of sin (which measures the size of the “gap” between our actions and the requirements of the law) because the doctrine of progressive sanctification needs a way of assessing progress towards the goal of becoming more like Jesus.

How do you deal with Ephesians 4:24 which says the new man "was created according to God, in true righteousness and holiness"? Specifically, do you not believe the righteousness and holiness of the new man is "true righteousness and holiness"?

How about 2 Corinthians 5:21?

For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him. (2 Co 5:21)​

Do you make its fulfillment escatological?
I suspect you might be correct with there being no direct phrase "the righteousness of Christ", however, I figured the concept has developed not without any justification when we consider Paul's use of "imputed righteousness"; for who's righteousness than can be thought of being imputed to us? If "imputed righteousness" merely means the absence of the guilt of sin and has nothing to do with the consideration of righteousness in it's proper sense (good works), whether of Christ or the righteousness of God in general, than why even adopt such a phrase instead of just speaking of forgiveness and redemption? Perhaps the apostle uses righteousness here as simply the merit that is given (righteousness) to one's faith in believing the gospel, being a necessary first step. I think the problem with this, however, is that it's logically obvious to must that one cannot separate the good works that follow from the faith that produces them, hence why such concepts, however they are spoken of, must have two sides to them - them always being intertwined together.

There is in fact a measure of what you call "the gap" in the progressive sanctification. There would be many things witnessing to that regard, such as conscience (though far from perfect, even fatal on its own), God's law, written scriptures, the Holy Spirit (which must also be personal - being poured out on all), righteousness itself when seen - being its own witness, the instruction of wisdom and sound doctrine - whether in forms of prophecy, teaching, warning, edification, exhortation, etc., but particularly through the establishment of faithful and reputable ministers in this regard, thus authority; only an authority that is in agreement to righteousness and other said testimonies.

With regard to your questions on those passages: concerning the first one, yes, I do think the righteousness and holiness of the new man out to be true righteousness and holiness. But as was said earlier, not in the sense that we must become sinless and perfect immediately; we are yet striving unto the goal. As far as I'm aware, the righteous were never understood to be sinless, but they did always have the fruits to distinguish them from the unrighteous nonetheless.

Concerning the second, I'm not certain exactly what you mean. I suspect you might mean that since no one is sinless, I must think this could only be fulfilled in the age to come? I don't see it that way. I think that passage is simply teaching that God is willing to receive us through Christ Whom He gave as a ransom for our sins, so that, by means of His mercy, He can restore us unto righteousness which was always the primary end; without getting into all the details of that passage. Therefore it's wrong to take this only in an eschatological sense; if we have the promise of eternal life, than why not start now and not then?
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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I suspect you might be correct with there being no direct phrase "the righteousness of Christ", however, I figured the concept has developed not without any justification when we consider Paul's use of "imputed righteousness"; for who's righteousness than can be thought of being imputed to us? If "imputed righteousness" merely means the absence of the guilt of sin and has nothing to do with the consideration of righteousness in it's proper sense (good works), whether of Christ or the righteousness of God in general, than why even adopt such a phrase instead of just speaking of forgiveness and redemption? Perhaps the apostle uses righteousness here as simply the merit that is given (righteousness) to one's faith in believing the gospel, being a necessary first step. I think the problem with this, however, is that it's logically obvious to must that one cannot separate the good works that follow from the faith that produces them, hence why such concepts, however they are spoken of, must have two sides to them - them always being intertwined together.

There is in fact a measure of what you call "the gap" in the progressive sanctification. There would be many things witnessing to that regard, such as conscience (though far from perfect, even fatal on its own), God's law, written scriptures, the Holy Spirit (which must also be personal - being poured out on all), righteousness itself when seen - being its own witness, the instruction of wisdom and sound doctrine - whether in forms of prophecy, teaching, warning, edification, exhortation, etc., but particularly through the establishment of faithful and reputable ministers in this regard, thus authority; only an authority that is in agreement to righteousness and other said testimonies.

With regard to your questions on those passages: concerning the first one, yes, I do think the righteousness and holiness of the new man out to be true righteousness and holiness. But as was said earlier, not in the sense that we must become sinless and perfect immediately; we are yet striving unto the goal. As far as I'm aware, the righteous were never understood to be sinless, but they did always have the fruits to distinguish them from the unrighteous nonetheless.

Concerning the second, I'm not certain exactly what you mean. I suspect you might mean that since no one is sinless, I must think this could only be fulfilled in the age to come? I don't see it that way. I think that passage is simply teaching that God is willing to receive us through Christ Whom He gave as a ransom for our sins, so that, by means of His mercy, He can restore us unto righteousness which was always the primary end; without getting into all the details of that passage. Therefore it's wrong to take this only in an eschatological sense; if we have the promise of eternal life, than why not start now and not then?
Ok, let's cut to the chase. Our righteousness, if we have any, comes from Christ who lives in our hearts (2 Co 5:21). If He is in us, though the body is dead because of its sin, the spirit is alive because of His righteousness (Ro 8:10). Those who have Christ living in their hearts are alive from the dead (Ro 6:13) and now live/exist/reside/abide in the Spirit and not in the flesh (Ro 8:9). They have been joined to the Lord and are one spirit with Him (1 Co 6:16). The righteousness they possess is therefore "true righteousness" (Eph 4:24) and it is eternal just as Christ is eternal (Ro 8:11).

The call to godly living (Ro 12:1–15:16, Ga 5:1–6:10, Eph 4:17–5:21, Col. 2:6–3:17, Titus 1:5–3:11, James 1:12–25; 3:13–4:10, 1 Peter 1:13–2:12; 4:1–11) is a call to those in whom Christ lives to live out their new lives in Christ. When we read these passages carefully, we do not find even a single Bible verse that says our flesh may be trained to be good. And we do not find even a single Bible verse that says the new man does anything wrong or need forgiveness for anything. But we see repeated statements that God has given us new life in Christ, He has made us one with Him in spirit, and to live successful Christian lives, we must turn from the evil desires that still exist in our flesh, and we must embrace the godly desires that exist only in the new man. This is crystalized in Galatians 5:25 which says, "If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in [lock step with] the Spirit." These are the "good works" for which we were newly created and in which we should walk (Eph 2:10).

To turn those "good works" into "righteousness" is to totally misunderstand righteousness and where it comes from. We gave up that point of view and adopted a new point of view when we turned to Christ to forgive us of our sins...

7 But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead. (Php 3:7–11)​
 
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Dima 26

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Ok, let's cut to the chase. Our righteousness, if we have any, comes from Christ who lives in our hearts (2 Co 5:21). If He is in us, though the body is dead because of its sin, the spirit is alive because of His righteousness (Ro 8:10). Those who have Christ living in their hearts are alive from the dead (Ro 6:13) and now live/exist/reside/abide in the Spirit and not in the flesh (Ro 8:9). They have been joined to the Lord and are one spirit with Him (1 Co 6:16). The righteousness they possess is therefore "true righteousness" (Eph 4:24) and it is eternal just as Christ is eternal (Ro 8:11).

The call to godly living (Ro 12:1–15:16, Ga 5:1–6:10, Eph 4:17–5:21, Col. 2:6–3:17, Titus 1:5–3:11, James 1:12–25; 3:13–4:10, 1 Peter 1:13–2:12; 4:1–11) is a call to those in whom Christ lives to live out their new lives in Christ. When we read these passages carefully, we do not find even a single Bible verse that says our flesh may be trained to be good. And we do not find even a single Bible verse that says the new man does anything wrong or need forgiveness for anything. But we see repeated statements that God has given us new life in Christ, He has made us one with Him in spirit, and to live successful Christian lives, we must turn from the evil desires that still exist in our flesh, and we must embrace the godly desires that exist only in the new man. This is crystalized in Galatians 5:25 which says, "If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in [lock step with] the Spirit." These are the "good works" for which we were newly created and in which we should walk (Eph 2:10).

To turn those "good works" into "righteousness" is to totally misunderstand righteousness and where it comes from. We gave up that point of view and adopted a new point of view when we turned to Christ to forgive us of our sins...

7 But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead. (Php 3:7–11)​
Therefore you're not able to assent to the fact that the righteousness that is imputed to us is real and to be understood in its proper sense. I think it’s a misfortune that such important terms and concepts pertaining to the things of God have devolved into having multiple meanings to where the proper meaning is obscured. For example, Ephesians 4:24 which you've sited: why may one not receive this in its proper sense, that the righteousness and holiness of the new man is actually "true"– being acceptable unto Him and formed after His righteousness as opposed to the old man that he mentions earlier – that having been formed after our own righteousness? I think it’s important to remember that the words of the Lord mean real business and effect real change, without room for dissimulation. If carelessly spoken words can cause harm, how much better than, on the contrary, should our carefully fashioned doctrines be at cultivating truth and righteousness in the earth? (A generic example of the value/potential of words, not directed at you obviously.) Here are some points worth considering:

  • If God sent Christ into the world because of sin, then surely the removal of sin is the most immediate justification of God's enterprise – from His perspective.
  • Is it not more thankful to answer God's grace and forgiveness with works, than to thank Him that works are no longer required?
  • How much better is the premise that man who glories in his righteousness and boasts in his sufficiency, brings glory to the Lord when he obeys and turns to a righteousness that now He teaches, than the premise that our works are incapable of glorifying God?
Now none of this is to say that we must be able to live up to all His standards and/or have any right to boast in the things He has called us to and enabled, rather, all that is being shown is that repentance and turning unto His righteousness (as opposed to ours) is the call and duty of the gospel; a righteousness acceptable unto God and perceivable unto man, and that this doesn't contradict any of the so-called doctrines of grace.

Sound doctrine and clarity on these issues is what I'm after. A lot of what you say sounds accurate at first glance, such as good works coming from Christ dwelling in us and us being in the Spirit and not the flesh, but than its clarity seems to be offset by the notion that the "new man" is a hypothetical concept, as with the guilt of the flesh not being attributed to us. But here we need more details. I agree that in a sense the "new man" is hypothetical, in so far as we often fail to meet its ideal (true of many of the callings of God – whatever form they take), but to make it entirely and properly hypothetical is to eliminate the concept entirely; the new man is truly the change from the old man, but it remains hypothetical only to the one who has not yet made it true. Likewise about the guilt of the flesh, I agree that temptations never cease and that temptations themselves aren't sins, but when temptation gives way to sin (or sin without temptation for that matter), then we agree the guilt of the flesh is attributed to us, even the new man, right? Perhaps I'm misinterpreting some of your statements but I guess I have warrant to interpret them in ways that are likely going to disagree with mine since you’ve taken an opposing view of mine position at large.

Concerning us having the indwelling of the Spirit, I certainly agree there’s an aspect to His operation that’s hidden from others from the outside, but surely there’s an outward aspect to His work as well. He works from the inside in a way that the inward necessarily affects the outward and it is by the outward that the quality of the inward is known; both are an inseparable part of humans anyways.

When you say, “to turn those good works into righteousness is to totally misunderstand righteousness and where it comes from”, I do not believe I misunderstand it because I’ve said that our righteousness comes from the Lord. The difference is that I believe that the work of God is that which truly produces works in us (I say works instead of righteousness because works it typically understood in its proper sense). It is given from above through grace as a gift, it is received with faith (since we have it not), and it produces righteousness (at the very least begins to) – a righteousness which is from above, not below. Interestingly, don’t you believe this as well – that all our good comes from God? Is it only because I maintain that there is a way to measure our faith, even we ourselves (not just others for us and us for others), and that this measure can tell us the substance of our faith, even to the point of being in Him or without Him? I think it all may come down to this.

But I would grant it that some of the Apostle Paul’s language may appear antagonistic to mine (although mainly from a shallow analysis) and I don’t have the time to go through all the relevant passages one by one. However, the pinnacle of them all is probably this simple rule: that we’re saved by grace through faith and not by works – where on may fairly counter me with mine same argument, “Why not receive works here in its proper sense also, thus including those works that are the Lords?” I reply that it is used in its proper sense, only that this is spoken of our works and not the Lord’s work in us. This fits well with the context of the salvation of the gentiles – of which Paul speaks – being saved from a life apart from God to a life now with Him, so that our works had nothing to do with effecting the salvation offered in Christ through the gospel. This also aligns well with him adding right after, “For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them”, thus demonstrating that what was properly ours was rejected by Him so that what comes after is His and not ours – for if what was ours was accepted by Him than Christ would not suffer. On top of this, I’ll add that even the works that come after receiving His salvation are not grounds for being justified before Him (much less boasting), since they’re only His insofar as they are truly His – for there is much of our own in them.

But ultimately, I think it comes down to setting our priorities right, and that which comes first, first indeed. What can that be than but the righteousness of God and what else may compete in its league? How then can anything take its place or make it of no effect? What promise may get in the way of it and not rather bolster it? What does it mean to know the Lord without knowing what He’s like? And what is the lacking element in a world that’s unable to work good other than that knowledge that enables it to work good? And if that knowledge is given, is it really given if it is yet unable to work good? Therefore, though I hope I didn’t misrepresent Paul or any other sacred concept, the last concept I am willing to misrepresent is seeking first the righteousness of God, and this is the side I’m willing to err on if need be.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Therefore you're not able to assent to the fact that the righteousness that is imputed to us is real and to be understood in its proper sense. I think it’s a misfortune that such important terms and concepts pertaining to the things of God have devolved into having multiple meanings to where the proper meaning is obscured. For example, Ephesians 4:24 which you've sited: why may one not receive this in its proper sense, that the righteousness and holiness of the new man is actually "true"– being acceptable unto Him and formed after His righteousness as opposed to the old man that he mentions earlier – that having been formed after our own righteousness?
The question as to the meaning of the word "true" in Ephesians 4:24 is plain...

ἀλήθεια, ας f: the content of that which is true and thus in accordance with what actually happened—‘truth.’ (Louw Nida Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament)​

I would argue that true righteousness and holiness does not have specks and swirls of sin and depravity mixed in with it. But your concept seems to be that the specks and swirls of sin that you have are cleaned up over time so that your deeds become more godly over time. There are no Scriptures that say the old man (i.e., the flesh) can be cleaned up over time and there are no Scriptures that say the new man (i.e., the spirit) can be corrupted by sin. On the contrary, Scripture consistently says things like, "For we are the circumcision, who worship God in the Spirit, rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh" (Php 3:3).
I think it’s important to remember that the words of the Lord mean real business and effect real change, without room for dissimulation.
This is true. I am trying to show you the real change that takes place in a person is internal, not external. After a person receives Christ into his heart, he loves God like he should, he loves his neighbors as he should, and he loves the things of God and hates sin as he should. He is burdened by the sins of his flesh and he longs for the day when he will be free of it. All the law's requirements for righghteousness are fullfilled in him, not just the ones I've mentioned here.
If carelessly spoken words can cause harm, how much better than, on the contrary, should our carefully fashioned doctrines be at cultivating truth and righteousness in the earth? (A generic example of the value/potential of words, not directed at you obviously.) Here are some points worth considering:
  1. If God sent Christ into the world because of sin, then surely the removal of sin is the most immediate justification of God's enterprise – from His perspective.
  2. Is it not more thankful to answer God's grace and forgiveness with works, than to thank Him that works are no longer required?
  3. How much better is the premise that man who glories in his righteousness and boasts in his sufficiency, brings glory to the Lord when he obeys and turns to a righteousness that now He teaches, than the premise that our works are incapable of glorifying God?
The carefully crafted doctrines you mention here are all based on the false premise that God is satisfied with incomplete compiance with His laws.
  1. God's enterprise is not justified when a person commits fewer sins. This POV ignores that sin comes from the heart and that all sin is lawlessness. A person is not better off today if he violates God's laws two times a week now instead of two times a day before.
  2. Works are not an answer to God's grace. You say works are no longer required, and that is true. Why is that so? Because, as it is written, "Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them" (Deut 27:26). But by God's grace "Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us" (Ga 3:13). By God's grace we are not under the curse. But those who desire to be under the law do not properly understand the requirements of the law (Ga 3:1-12) or the consequences for placing himself under it (Ga 4:21-31).
  3. Boasing in oneself does not bring glory to God.
7 But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead. (Php 3:7–11)​
Now none of this is to say that we must be able to live up to all His standards and/or have any right to boast in the things He has called us to and enabled, rather, all that is being shown is that repentance and turning unto His righteousness (as opposed to ours) is the call and duty of the gospel; a righteousness acceptable unto God and perceivable unto man, and that this doesn't contradict any of the so-called doctrines of grace.
I have seen this many times before. This doctrine always needs an "out" because it is obvious to everyone that the righteousness it promotes is unobtainable. What is sad is that it is rare that the holders of this doctrine recognize and take personal responsibility for their own failures to live up to its requirements. And it is curious when they turn to Christ for forgiveness for those failures that they continue to see their rightness with God to be becuase of their good works instead of understanding their rightness with God is because God laid on Christ all their iniquities.
Sound doctrine and clarity on these issues is what I'm after. A lot of what you say sounds accurate at first glance, such as good works coming from Christ dwelling in us and us being in the Spirit and not the flesh, but than its clarity seems to be offset by the notion that the "new man" is a hypothetical concept, as with the guilt of the flesh not being attributed to us. But here we need more details.
Romans 8:10 provides the details... "And if Christ is in you, the body is dead because of sin, but the Spirit is life because of righteousness." The old man (i.e., the flesh) is dead becaus of its sin and the new man (i.e., the spirit) is alive because of His righteousness. Concerning the sinfulness of the flesh being forgiven, it is said, "There is therefore now no condemnation" (Ro 8:1).
I agree that in a sense the "new man" is hypothetical, in so far as we often fail to meet its ideal (true of many of the callings of God – whatever form they take), but to make it entirely and properly hypothetical is to eliminate the concept entirely; the new man is truly the change from the old man, but it remains hypothetical only to the one who has not yet made it true.
I am not saying it is "hypothetical". That is your interpretation of what I'm saying. Take this saying of Jesus... "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit" (Jn 3:6). Jesus is pointing to a reality, not to a hypothetical. When a person is procreated by his human parents, he becomes a human being. When God gives birth to a person, he becomes an offspring of God. That new creature that God created when He gave birth to it (i.e., the new man) is "spiritual", not "physical". And it is not "hypothetical". It is real, and he has "true righteousness and holiness" because he is born from out of God.
Likewise about the guilt of the flesh, I agree that temptations never cease and that temptations themselves aren't sins, but when temptation gives way to sin (or sin without temptation for that matter), then we agree the guilt of the flesh is attributed to us, even the new man, right?
Yes, we continue to be responsible for the sins of the flesh, but our sins are forgiven. Even the depravity of the flesh is forgiven. Our possession of His forgiveness is why we can say "there is therefore now no condemnation" as I said above. But the sins of the flesh are not attributable to the new man. The new man (the new creation) has true righteousness and holiness.
Perhaps I'm misinterpreting some of your statements but I guess I have warrant to interpret them in ways that are likely going to disagree with mine since you’ve taken an opposing view of mine position at large.

Concerning us having the indwelling of the Spirit, I certainly agree there’s an aspect to His operation that’s hidden from others from the outside, but surely there’s an outward aspect to His work as well. He works from the inside in a way that the inward necessarily affects the outward and it is by the outward that the quality of the inward is known; both are an inseparable part of humans anyways.
I agree with this. Galatains 5 explains a lot of it. The flesh has desires that are in adversarial opposition to those of the Spirit. When we walk in lock step with the flesh, we reap the fruit of the flesh. But when we walk in lock step with the Spirit, we reap the fruit of the Spirit. And the only way to deny the flesh what it wants and not reap its fruit is to walk in lock step with the Spirit. When a person walks in the Spirit and not in the flesh, there is nothing to boast about, but he can still enjoy the benefits that doing so produces.
When you say, “to turn those good works into righteousness is to totally misunderstand righteousness and where it comes from”, I do not believe I misunderstand it because I’ve said that our righteousness comes from the Lord. The difference is that I believe that the work of God is that which truly produces works in us (I say works instead of righteousness because works it typically understood in its proper sense). It is given from above through grace as a gift, it is received with faith (since we have it not), and it produces righteousness (at the very least begins to) – a righteousness which is from above, not below. Interestingly, don’t you believe this as well – that all our good comes from God? Is it only because I maintain that there is a way to measure our faith, even we ourselves (not just others for us and us for others), and that this measure can tell us the substance of our faith, even to the point of being in Him or without Him? I think it all may come down to this.
You could be right that our differences are semantic differences only. Now I'm thinking I should have read your whole post first before replying one line at a time. I do agree that our righteousness is found in Christ and His righteousness finds its way to the surface when we walk in lock step with Him. But looking at myself and my actions, not at others, I see that the righteousness that is displayed in my actions falls immeasurably short of His righteousness and the righteousness that I possess in Him. As a result, I do not see anything praisworthy in what I do. I am just grateful that He forgives me all my shortcommings and continues to call me upward.
But I would grant it that some of the Apostle Paul’s language may appear antagonistic to mine (although mainly from a shallow analysis) and I don’t have the time to go through all the relevant passages one by one. However, the pinnacle of them all is probably this simple rule: that we’re saved by grace through faith and not by works – where on may fairly counter me with mine same argument, “Why not receive works here in its proper sense also, thus including those works that are the Lords?” I reply that it is used in its proper sense, only that this is spoken of our works and not the Lord’s work in us. This fits well with the context of the salvation of the gentiles – of which Paul speaks – being saved from a life apart from God to a life now with Him, so that our works had nothing to do with effecting the salvation offered in Christ through the gospel. This also aligns well with him adding right after, “For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them”, thus demonstrating that what was properly ours was rejected by Him so that what comes after is His and not ours – for if what was ours was accepted by Him than Christ would not suffer. On top of this, I’ll add that even the works that come after receiving His salvation are not grounds for being justified before Him (much less boasting), since they’re only His insofar as they are truly His – for there is much of our own in them.
I think I followed you here. I agree the passage you reference says our good works do not save us, otherwise we would have something of which to boast. And the good works that follow our salvation do not give us cause to boast either, because as you said, the credit for them belongs to Him. I would just add that Ephesians 2:10 ("For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works") highlights the fact that we are "His workmanship" and are "created in Christ Jesus". This points us to the new man who is "joined to the Lord" and is "one spirit with Him" (1 Cor 6:17). And He made us new creatures with a purpose to walk in lock step with Him as He leads, guides, directs, corrects, and comforts us from the depths of our own hearts.
But ultimately, I think it comes down to setting our priorities right, and that which comes first, first indeed. What can that be than but the righteousness of God and what else may compete in its league? How then can anything take its place or make it of no effect? What promise may get in the way of it and not rather bolster it? What does it mean to know the Lord without knowing what He’s like? And what is the lacking element in a world that’s unable to work good other than that knowledge that enables it to work good? And if that knowledge is given, is it really given if it is yet unable to work good? Therefore, though I hope I didn’t misrepresent Paul or any other sacred concept, the last concept I am willing to misrepresent is seeking first the righteousness of God, and this is the side I’m willing to err on if need be.
But seek ye first the kingdom of God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you (Mt 6:33).​

This was my first "favorite" verse some some 50 years ago, lol. Maybe we're on a common trajectory after all.
 
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It seems that the application of this concept, the imputed righteousness of Christ, has largely been taken up in the atoning and covering sense only - to the exclusion of those works and righteousness that God cultivates in us through Christ. Indeed, the former is certainly one side of the coin, but surely the latter is as necessary for the concept to stand as a coin necessarily must have two faces. The words of the Lord always mean real business: if the purpose of God in Christ is to redeem His people from sin and death, than He means this in its proper sense - to redeem us to Himself in righteousness. Therefore, if clothing is used to portray a type of righteousness in such analogies as in "our righteousness are as filthy rags" and "He has clothed me with the garments of salvation and covered me in a robe of righteousness", than just as our filthy rags were works done by us, so also is the robe of righteousness He gives becomes works done by us. The decisive aspect that makes all the difference in this, however, is that the filthy rags were our doings and wisdom, but the robe of righteousness is the Lord's doing and wisdom in us; one is the ancient rebellion since the days of Eden, the other is the joint fellowship with the Creator God and the acknowledgment of His righteousness.

Of course, I don't mean to say that we must be sinless and perfect for us to have Christ's righteousness imputed to us, rather, this is were the atoning and covering side of the coin steps in. His mercy is the foundation of His dealings with us, to the end that we may be able to grow up into the image of His Son, but this does not make the other side of the equation of none effect, since we are still in the process of growing into His image, and not another. The gospel is the means and righteousness the end.

I know many may not like how this sounds but would shrug it off as though I'm wasting mine time defining what are the elementary principles of the faith. That's fine, but all I ask than, can you say together with me that the imputed righteousness of Christ does in fact have to sides to the equation as outlined above, or not? If not, than a point of contention has in fact been raised, and I'm no longer wasting mine time.
While the only way for someone to attain a character traits is through faith, what it means for someone to attain a character trait is for them to become a doer of that trait. For example, the one and only way for someone to become courageous is through faith apart from being required to have first done a certain amount of courageous works in order to earn it as the result, but it would be contradictory for someone to become courageous apart from becoming a doer of courageous works, and the same is true for righteousness and every other character trait. This is why the same faith by which we are declared righteous apart from works does not abolish our need to be a doer of righteous works in obedience to God's law, but rather our faith upholds it (Romans 3:28-31). God's law was never given as a way of earning our righteousness, even through perfect obedience (Romans 4:1-5), so that was never the goal of why we should obey it.

If our obedience to God's instructions were filthy rags, then that would mean that God is a commander of filthy rags, however, that is not the case, rather the righteous deeds of the saints are like fine white linen (Revelation 19:8). In Isaiah 64:6, it is not God speaking, but rather it is the people hyperbolically complaining about God not coming down and making His presence known. Following God's instructions is in accordance with God's wisdom, not our own. Christ expressed his righteousness through living in obedience to God's law, so that is also the way that we have the gift of living when we are imputed with his righteousness.
 
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If God sent Christ into the world because of sin, then surely the removal of sin is the most immediate justification of God's enterprise – from His perspective.

Just to be clear, Jesus Christ is God, one of the three persons of the Holy and Undivided Trinity (not three Gods, but one God, in three persons, with each person being fully God). In the incarnation He put on our humanity by means of God the Holy Spirit impregnating the Blessed Virgin Mary, and is thus fully Man, his Deity and Humanity united in one hypostasis without change, confusion, separation or division.

Therefore, the righteousness of Christ is the righteousness of God, which is to say, since God is Good, not merely good as an attribute, but Goodness itself, and since God likewise is Love, not merely loving, and likewise Christ our True God asserts that He is Truth, we can say that an imputed righteousness (which I would note, is primarily a Western, post-Schism theological phrase) is the infinite perfection of God Himself, and not any kind of intermediate righteousness that might accompany an Arian or Nestorian Christology.
 
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Dima 26

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Just to be clear, Jesus Christ is God, one of the three persons of the Holy and Undivided Trinity (not three Gods, but one God, in three persons, with each person being fully God). In the incarnation He put on our humanity by means of God the Holy Spirit impregnating the Blessed Virgin Mary, and is thus fully Man, his Deity and Humanity united in one hypostasis without change, confusion, separation or division.

Therefore, the righteousness of Christ is the righteousness of God, which is to say, since God is Good, not merely good as an attribute, but Goodness itself, and since God likewise is Love, not merely loving, and likewise Christ our True God asserts that He is Truth, we can say that an imputed righteousness (which I would note, is primarily a Western, post-Schism theological phrase) is the infinite perfection of God Himself, and not any kind of intermediate righteousness that might accompany an Arian or Nestorian Christology.
There is nothing in mine premise that you quote that has anything amiss with regard to the relationship of the persons of the trinity for the mere reason because I referred to the Father who sent the Son as “God” and to the Son Himself as “Christ”. Jesus himself says this even more forcefully in John 17:3 in addition to plenty of other places stating that God sent His Son. But if you mean to signal out the whole of mine language as sounding ant-trinitarian, then this also is false as you should also find fault with many of the sermons recorded in the Book of Acts, particularly Peter's sermon at the day of Pentecost and to Cornelius. I have spoken elsewhere of Christ's divinity, incarnation, and His preexistence as the begotten Son, therefore your calling into question mine theology on such matters is uncalled for.

Now as to your point on Christ’s righteousness proceeding purely from Himself, this I reject. He Himself declared that He did not seek His own will but His Father’s that sent Him – because of which His (Jesus’s) judgment was also just, and that He did not seek His own glory. Also, He teaches us that it is those who do the will of His Father in heaven that He regards, in this way solidifying the testimony of righteousness as its own witness. It is by this rule that the one who works truth is able to come to the light (John 3:20-21), certify that God is true (John 3:32-34), have heard and learned of the Father (John 6:45), and certify the doctrine of Christ (John 7:16-18), because those who were followers of the truth would be able to recognize the Master of the truth Himself (John 18:37). Thus, Jesus Christ likewise expects from His disciples to be followers of the truth and righteousness of God because otherwise Jesus has no foundation from which to work from, He Himself being the faithful and true witness of the Father’s righteousness (Revelation 3:14).

There’s a lot more I can say pertaining to this, but I doubt it’ll bring any profit as all of this will come off as shocking to you anyway. I look to the substance that was used to produce the Nicene Creed; the way I see the Creed is as a framework to guard us against error while we learn to navigate and supply the necessary substance to complete the building. I’ll grant it that Christology (and the relationships of the persons of the trinity at large) is one of the harder branches of knowledge so I acknowledge that I may err in some of it, which I do my best to understand, but I doubt that you know it much better than me under the surface. I’m talking about truly understanding those things – to fill the forms we give with substance; but whatever is hidden – it’s hidden both to you and me.

But surely you will immediately appeal to church authority as that guarantor by which to settle any differences between our views, to try to force your church’s view on me. If so, I tell you, don’t waste yours and my time: the truth of God that I search after is of a more excellent nature than such poverty. But if you’ll use the concept of authority (as a loosely defined concept under the current state of affairs of the universal church) as a principal that doesn’t contradict or negate other witnesses that speak to the truth of the matter surrounding it, than there is room for discussion. However, I will not go down this road at this time; I want to reassess and better formulate mine understanding of the relationship and persons of the trinity before getting into all the details of it and this is not the thread for this to begin with. The concept that I outlined above with Christ’s righteousness being that righteousness which He sought out from His Father – thus making it His own – is well attested in Scriptures (as I’ve shown above) – the Scriptures that were looked to for the Creed and also by the men that contributed to the trinitarian doctrines leading up to it (some of whom ironically appear to end up outside the bounds of its rulings – at least as interpreted now by the mainstream opinion).

As for you not liking the phrase “imputed righteousness” because of it being primarily a Western, post-schism term, well I’ll say that you don’t have to necessarily like it; it’s only one of the ways of demonstrating, teaching, and speaking of how we as believers are forgiven and transformed into the image of His Son. But I suspect that you don’t want to talk so much on this (which is actually the topic of the thread) since you appear to have come off as one trying to catch one unexpectantly in what are some of the most complex theological questions; this you may have accomplished and this is the best you might get at me. I say give me some time to establish the truth of these matters – I will not dissimulate on such important divine matters.
 
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The Liturgist

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But surely you will immediately appeal to church authority as that guarantor by which to settle any differences between our views, to try to force your church’s view on me.

Nope, because you addressed my concerns. It is obvious now that your views are Trinitarian and Nicene.

I should state, I was not looking to, as you eloquently expressed it,
catch one unexpectantly in what are some of the most complex theological questions;

Rather, there is a serious problem with people either not fully comprehending Trinitarian theology or only half accepting it with results which vary from Nestorianism to Arianism, and this has often manifested itself in the form of soteriological distortions which are specific to this topic.

But it is clear that your theology is well constructed and well articulated. I was concerned initially, but where I had doubts, I now have assurance.

Indeed I want to thank you for taking the time to write such an eloquent reply, which I respect and admire, because you have demonstrated an attitude towards Christian theology that I feel we should all seek to cultivate.

I have been a member of CF.com for several years, and it might interest you to know that your reply is one of the better posts I have had the pleasure of reading!

God bless you, and thank you!
 
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Dima 26

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Nope, because you addressed my concerns. It is obvious now that your views are Trinitarian and Nicene.

I should state, I was not looking to, as you eloquently expressed it,


Rather, there is a serious problem with people either not fully comprehending Trinitarian theology or only half accepting it with results which vary from Nestorianism to Arianism, and this has often manifested itself in the form of soteriological distortions which are specific to this topic.

But it is clear that your theology is well constructed and well articulated. I was concerned initially, but where I had doubts, I now have assurance.

Indeed I want to thank you for taking the time to write such an eloquent reply, which I respect and admire, because you have demonstrated an attitude towards Christian theology that I feel we should all seek to cultivate.

I have been a member of CF.com for several years, and it might interest you to know that your reply is one of the better posts I have had the pleasure of reading!

God bless you, and thank you!
Well thank you, I appreciate your recognition of that labor that goes into maintaining the right attitude towards theology; may God help us all approach Him in all honesty and seriousness!
 
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fhansen

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Ok, let's cut to the chase. Our righteousness, if we have any, comes from Christ who lives in our hearts (2 Co 5:21). If He is in us, though the body is dead because of its sin, the spirit is alive because of His righteousness (Ro 8:10). Those who have Christ living in their hearts are alive from the dead (Ro 6:13) and now live/exist/reside/abide in the Spirit and not in the flesh (Ro 8:9).
Yes, and unless they live by the Spirit and not the flesh (which is always a temptation), putting to death the deeds of the flesh, they will die. Rom 6:21 and 8:12-13.
 
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  1. Boasing in oneself does not bring glory to God.
7 But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead. (Php 3:7–11)
I just want to start of by clarifying mine third premise from the short list I made, where I say "How much better is the premise that man who glories in his righteousness and boasts in his sufficiency, brings glory to the Lord when he obeys and turns to a righteousness that now He teaches, than the premise that our works are incapable of glorifying God?" - this may have been a poor choice of words on mine part, where if you understood it the way you seem to have, you were right to respond with "Boasting in oneself does not bring glory to God". When I spoke of one boasting and glorying, I meant to constrain this only to the time before he turns to the Lord - the very fact of him having to abandon what was his own and acknowledge God is in itself humbling and cannot sustain boasting. Contrarily, after he turns to the Lord, I believe that the works that the Lord teaches us do truly glorify God (not us boasting in them), and that this could only be the true way man could glorify God - when we agree with Him and obey.

I think this might be a good analogy to help illustrate the concept of how man's righteousness and God's righteousness interact with each other in a generic sense: imagine a scenario where one is attempting to either solve, learn, or build something, and is doing it entirely incorrectly and failing time after time, so that one who knows how to do it comes and try's to explain and show him how it's done, but the person is stubborn at first and answers that he does not need his help and can figure it out on his own. Finally, he decides that he's had enough and agrees to listen to the one offering help, who being gracious enough to still help after he's rejected him (at least once) explains him the proper way so that the person finally succeeds. Tell me, in what way can that person even imagine to still boast in his prior failures and current success before the one that made him succeed? And is this not what the Lord does with fallen man in a fallen world, even the Father of the human race?

I'd like to get back to you on some other things but wanted to clarify this important principal (which I think I may have failed with mine poor choice of words) sooner than later. I do think this is a productive conversation and I'm glad we can talk about this to the end that sound doctrine may rise up out of obscurity - wherever that may be. As you say, hopefully we may proceed with a common trajectory, and I don't see why not if we're both serious with Jesus's words that you site, "But seek ye first the kingdom of God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you".
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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I just want to start of by clarifying mine third premise from the short list I made, where I say "How much better is the premise that man who glories in his righteousness and boasts in his sufficiency, brings glory to the Lord when he obeys and turns to a righteousness that now He teaches, than the premise that our works are incapable of glorifying God?" - this may have been a poor choice of words on mine part, where if you understood it the way you seem to have, you were right to respond with "Boasting in oneself does not bring glory to God". When I spoke of one boasting and glorying, I meant to constrain this only to the time before he turns to the Lord - the very fact of him having to abandon what was his own and acknowledge God is in itself humbling and cannot sustain boasting. Contrarily, after he turns to the Lord, I believe that the works that the Lord teaches us do truly glorify God (not us boasting in them), and that this could only be the true way man could glorify God - when we agree with Him and obey.

I think this might be a good analogy to help illustrate the concept of how man's righteousness and God's righteousness interact with each other in a generic sense: imagine a scenario where one is attempting to either solve, learn, or build something, and is doing it entirely incorrectly and failing time after time, so that one who knows how to do it comes and try's to explain and show him how it's done, but the person is stubborn at first and answers that he does not need his help and can figure it out on his own. Finally, he decides that he's had enough and agrees to listen to the one offering help, who being gracious enough to still help after he's rejected him (at least once) explains him the proper way so that the person finally succeeds. Tell me, in what way can that person even imagine to still boast in his prior failures and current success before the one that made him succeed? And is this not what the Lord does with fallen man in a fallen world, even the Father of the human race?

I'd like to get back to you on some other things but wanted to clarify this important principal (which I think I may have failed with mine poor choice of words) sooner than later. I do think this is a productive conversation and I'm glad we can talk about this to the end that sound doctrine may rise up out of obscurity - wherever that may be. As you say, hopefully we may proceed with a common trajectory, and I don't see why not if we're both serious with Jesus's words that you site, "But seek ye first the kingdom of God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you".
Thank you for the clarification. I certainly didn't see all those nuances in your original post. I would agree with you that "Walking in the Spirit" denies the flesh what it wants, fulfills what the Spirit wants, and results in God's righteousness being displayed in a person's actions. But some of our fellow CF members think the righteousness displayed by someone who walks in the Spirit is required of him by God in order for them to obtain eternal life, and if they don't display enough of God's righteousness in their daily lives they will not make it. I am glad to know you are not in that camp.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Yes, and unless they live by the Spirit and not the flesh (which is always a temptation), putting to death the deeds of the flesh, they will die. Rom 6:21 and 8:12-13.
Is this a symptom or the root cause of our differences? I can't tell.
 
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fhansen

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Is this a symptom or the root cause of our differences? I can't tell.
Not sure. But Christianity is about God forgiving past sin and empowering us to 'go, and sin no more', a work of putting His law in our minds and writing it on our hearts. All of that is the result of being justified. It's to become connected to the Vine, as we were meant to be, as we turn to Him in faith, and that union is both the essence and the source of man's righteousness. Christianity is not about God "pretending" that we're righteous when, in fact, we're not. That's not the purpose of faith or the new covenant.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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Not sure. But Christianity is about God forgiving past sin and empowering us to 'go, and sin no more', a work of putting His law in our minds and writing it on our hearts. All of that is the result of being justified. It's to become connected to the Vine, as we were meant to be, as we turn to Him in faith, and that union is both the essence and the source of man's righteousness. Christianity is not about God "pretending" that we're righteous when, in fact, we're not. That's not the purpose of faith or the new covenant.
I think the root cause of our differences is found here...

Abraham Justified by Faith
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.​
David Celebrates the Same Truth
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:​
7 “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,​
And whose sins are covered;​
8 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.”​
The New King James Version (Ro 4:1–8). (1982). Thomas Nelson.​

The bold+underline is where the underlying original language uses the word, "λογίζομαι", which is translated here "counted", "accounted", "impute" and "imputes". It does not mean, "treat something as if it has a quality that it actually doesn't possess" (i.e., "treat an unrighteous person as if he is righteous"). It means "count things correctly" (i.e., "count lawlessness as sin" and "count good works as righteousness").

When a person works for wages, his wages are properly counted as "earned". It would be improper to count the wages as a gracious gift. This principle is applied here to Abraham. It was not Abraham's works that were counted as righteousness, otherwise he would have something to boast about (i.e., he could say he earned his righteousness by his works). No, God counted Abraham's faith as righteousness.

Similarly, when any other person does not work for his righteousness, but instead believes in the God who justifies the ungodly, God counts his faith as righteousness. David also recognized the blessedness of God not counting a person's sins against him but counting his trust in God's forgiveness as righteousness.

This passage identifies two ways a person may be counted as righteous. He can try to earn it by good works (not recommended) or he can trust in the God who justifies the ungodly (recommended).
 
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fhansen

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I think the root cause of our differences is found here...

Abraham Justified by Faith
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.​
David Celebrates the Same Truth
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:​
7 “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,​
And whose sins are covered;​
8 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.”​
The New King James Version (Ro 4:1–8). (1982). Thomas Nelson.​

The bold+underline is where the underlying original language uses the word, "λογίζομαι", which is translated here "counted", "accounted", "impute" and "imputes". It does not mean, "treat something as if it has a quality that it actually doesn't possess" (i.e., "treat an unrighteous person as if he is righteous"). It means "count things correctly" (i.e., "count lawlessness as sin" and "count good works as righteousness").

When a person works for wages, his wages are properly counted as "earned". It would be improper to count the wages as a gracious gift. This principle is applied here to Abraham. It was not Abraham's works that were counted as righteousness, otherwise he would have something to boast about (i.e., he could say he earned his righteousness by his works). No, God counted Abraham's faith as righteousness.

Similarly, when any other person does not work for his righteousness, but instead believes in the God who justifies the ungodly, God counts his faith as righteousness. David also recognized the blessedness of God not counting a person's sins against him but counting his trust in God's forgiveness as righteousness.

This passage identifies two ways a person may be counted as righteous. He can try to earn it by good works (not recommended) or he can trust in the God who justifies the ungodly (recommended).
You're not fully understanding the gospel or the nature and role of faith. The reason that Abraham was declared righteous is because that step, that expression, of faith, is right, the first and most basic right or just thing that a man can do. And from it should flow right action as a connection is now established by it: the branch, as previously mentioned, grafted into the Vine. God is our only source of righteousness, IOW, not works of the law. James emphasizes this in case we get it messed up, that faith apart from works is worthless.

Our faith is a "reset", so to speak, the reverse of Adam's break with God. We're forgiven of the sin that results in death and by virtue of that reconciled relationship we're now given the power, by grace, with the Spirit, to overcome sin, with eternal life as the result (Rom 6:22-23). That's what it means to justify the ungodly.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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You're not fully understanding the gospel or the nature and role of faith. The reason that Abraham was declared righteous is because that step, that expression, of faith, is right, the first and most basic right or just thing that a man can do. And from it should flow right action as a connection is now established by it: the branch, as previously mentioned, grafted into the Vine. God is our only source of righteousness, IOW, not works of the law. James emphasizes this in case we get it messed up, that faith apart from works is worthless.

Our faith is a "reset", so to speak, the reverse of Adam's break with God. We're forgiven of the sin that results in death and by virtue of that reconciled relationship we're now given the power, by grace, with the Spirit, to overcome sin, with eternal life as the result (Rom 6:22-23). That's what it means to justify the ungodly.
You are correct that our understandings are vastly different. My post was to identify the core difference. And you obliged by confirming my assertion. How? Because, though you initially state an objection to good works as a valid path to rightness with God, you later fully embrace it when you pivot to the "reset" theory that says we must make good use of "the power to overcome sin" in order to obtain eternal life. This reveals your core belief that people earn their seat at God's table by their works. Of course, you can't admit this, so you try to make the argument that the path you promote is not works, but grace through faith. But in the end, since in your view a person gains eternal life only if he performs his duties properly, you are promoting salvation by works. You are right that this is inconsistent with my understanding of the gospel and the nature and role of faith.
 
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fhansen

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This reveals your core belief that people earn their seat at God's table by their works.
Faith is one requirment, and another is to do the works that faith should lead to, those works prepared for us in advance Eph 2:10. Sometimes it seems peope don't wish to understand, "Rightness with God", acheived by the gift of faith, is the means to personal righteousness and obedience.

"To those who by persistence in doing good seek glory, honor and immortality, he will give eternal life." Rom 2:7

"To him who is able to keep you from stumbling and to present you before his glorious presence without fault and with great joy - to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen." Jude 24-25

We're to invest our "talents" (Matt 25:14-30), to do the best we can with what we've been given, beginning with faith, in working out our salvation with He who works in us (Phil 2:12-13). The new covenant is about a partnership, with God now, 'apart from whom we can do nothing' (John 15:5), instead of the autonomy and alienation from Him that Adam opted for. We must become 'His people' (Jer 31:33), then He writes His law in our hearts.

The real diffiernce is in whether or not righteousness is strictly delcared of/imputed to us, or if it is not also given to us at justificatiion.

"But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe." Rom 3:21-22

"For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ!" Rom 5:17

"When you were slaves to sin, you were free from the control of righteousness. What benefit did you reap at that time from the things you are now ashamed of? Those things result in death! But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the benefit you reap leads to holiness, and the result is eternal life." Rom 6:20-22
 
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