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I am your healer

NBB

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wof or not, miracles happening or not, the bible still says those promises, 'supposedly' God doesn't fail, i say Jesus still says today 'men of little faith', everything is possible for those who believe, i don't believe one bit, that God wants most people sick without help, when he says 'i am your healer' he is God.
 
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Guojing

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wof or not, miracles happening or not, the bible still says those promises, 'supposedly' God doesn't fail, i say Jesus still says today 'men of little faith', everything is possible for those who believe, i don't believe one bit, that God wants most people sick without help, when he says 'i am your healer' he is God.

The real question is, did he say that to you?

Was Genesis 15:5 said to you?
 
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Bobber

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But what did the centurion believe? Did the centurion believe that his servant would be healed as soon as he asked Jesus, before he even got an affirmative reply? No, it doesn't say that. The only belief he expressed was in Jesus's ability to heal - "only say the word, and my servant will be healed".
And that's something you've got wrong SW. He had heard of Jesus who was going everywhere healing the sick. Actually Luke's gospel gives the more detailed account. He asked the Jewish elders to plead with Jesus to come to his place believing he'd be willing to heal. Next while Jesus was on his way the Centurion sent servants to tell Jesus that he didn't even have to physically come to his place but....(and then the part you quoted) ---> "Only say the word and my servant will be healed" or you could say he was expressing Jesus ability to heal A CERTAIN WAY.


 
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Bobber

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It's like the healing of the leper immediately before in Mat 8:1-4. He didn't believe that Jesus would immediately heal him as soon as he asked. No, he said "Lord, if you are willing, you can make me clean". He only believed that Jesus had the ability to heal, and that it was conditional upon Jesus being willing. And he was still healed.
Sorry SW but aren't you missing the whole point as to why this is even recorded in he text? What is this to tell us the reader in our day? You can't see that it's supposed to be saying to readers to IT IS HE WILL OF GOD to heal the sick and all the sick....as in is any sick among you? I'd encourage you to give this much thought. Show me one time, one time, even just one time where anyone came to Jesus wanting and longing to be healed and he said NO it's not my will to make this happen? Show it to me in Matthew, Mark, Luke or John. I don't think you'll find such a case.
Or the healing of the 2 blind men in Matthew 9. What did they believe?
Jesus said to them, “Do you believe that I am able to do this?” They said to him, “Yes, Lord.” Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith be it done to you.”
And I believe you've missed it again the way you're looking at this verse. They believe he was able to do it......notice he touched their eyes.....and now according to your faith be it done unto you......according to what faith? According to your faith that you're believing you receive when my hands touch your eyes, or consider it this way ....according to your faith to see yourself with the answer. You believe I'm able now will you believe that you receive it? According to this type of faith you will cause the power of God to effect a cure. Faith is believing you receive when you pray....Mark 11:24 says exactly that.
 
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Bobber

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Or the lame man at the Beautiful Gate. He simply had faith is Jesus's name, not faith that he would definitely be healed. (Acts 3:16).
Peter and John knew they were given authority in the Name of Jesus. They had what we call today the Power of Attorney.....Jesus gave them his name.....the Name of Jesus took the place of the risen Christ. In the name of Jesus there is salvation, in the name of Jesus there IS healing, deliverance and anything that has one bound. I'm not even sure nor can we how much the lame man even knew about Jesus Name

that is as something for healing Peter and John most certainly knew. You can see it in Acts 3 16 By faith in the name of Jesus, this man whom you see and know has been made strong. It is Jesus’ name and the faith that comes through Him that has given him this complete healing in your presence. So for Peter to even say that confirms to us that healing is for all for salvation is in that NAME too. To say healing is not for all is to say a part of the Name of Jesus is not for every believer. Scripture says we are also baptized into Jesus name. Not just baptized in the name but also into it as well.

On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. Acts 19:5



 
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Bobber

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Not without the applying condition stated in 1 John 5:14 you can't. Only if it's God's will can you be certain you will have them.
Well you've rejected Isaiah 53: 4 which says,

But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.

When all the time in Matthew 8: 14, 17 he healed PHYSCIALY Peter's mother-in-law of a fever which led to all other oppressed and sick people coming to Jesus to receive healing themselves. And in verse 17 it uses this statement from Isaiah 53:4 as the backing to why the physically sick would be healed. Point....the curse was laid on Jesus.....the curse of sickness and that's what Duet 28 calls it.....the curse of the law.

Sorry SW but there's no real excuse for you not accepting the word of God the Bible and saying it hasn't said enough to confirm it is God's will to heal all.




 
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Bobber

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No it isn't. Scripture clearly teaches that it is sometimes God's will for us to suffer.....
To suffer what? Sickness and disease? You might want to consider that it's talking about persecution. Jesus said in this world you will suffer tribulation. John 16:33 It's not even talking about sickness and physical disease.


1 Peter 1:6-9 In this you greatly rejoice, even though now for a little while, if necessary, you have been distressed by various trials, so that the proof of your faith, being more precious than gold which is perishable, even though tested by fire, may be found to result in praise and glory and honor at the revelation of Jesus Christ;
Sorry but you're misapplying the scriptures and not rightly dividing the word of truth. Your trials are not the curse of the law for the Bible says we are redeemed from the curse. Gal 3:13
1 Peter 4:12-16 Beloved, do not be surprised at the fiery ordeal among you, which comes upon you for your testing, as though some strange thing were happening to you; but to the degree that you share the sufferings of Christ, keep on rejoicing,
SW you should have read on.....it's talking about bearing the suffering of persecution nothng more.

"If you are insulted for the name of Christ, you are blessed, because the Spirit of glory and of God rests on you.d 15Indeed, none of you should suffer as a murderer or thief or wrongdoer, or even as a meddler. 16But if you suffer as a Christian, do not be ashamed, but glorify God that you bear that name.e 17For it is time for judgment to begin with the family of God; and if it begins with us.....1 Peter 4: 16

It's all talking about persecution not sickness, disease or the curse of the law. That' NOT what we're called to suffer with.

Psalm 119:67-75 - "It was good for me to be afflicted so that I might learn your decrees...and in faithfulness you have afflicted me."
Even if one were to argue that's even talking about sickness that would still not mean it's not the perfect will of God for the one to be healed and well. You need to consider that.
Jesus himself prayed for his cup of suffering to be removed. But crucially he added "yet not my will, but yours be done." And of course his suffering was not removed….for our sake. (Luke 22:42)
Of course. It was the will of God for him to die for us. But you're missing the very thing you should get from the above. Jesus bore that suffering physical affliction paid for by his wounds for it wasn't the will of the Father God that you and I would have to. So how about we not let his suffering on the cross be in vain. How about we appropriate all that his suffering on the cross paid for us. That's not only salvation but also healing. Is 53:4
It was not God's will to heal Lazarus.
Yes it was. But in his soverirngty he has a time he was going to do this and we can see why. What else could you call being raised from the dead except healing.
He became sick and his sisters brought the problem to Jesus, but Jesus did not heal him. It was God's will that Lazarus should die from his sickness.
It was the will of God for Lazarus to be make whole. He just had his time for doing it.
It was not God's will to heal Elisha. He had "double anointing” from God, yet he developed a sickness and he died from it.
A double anointing from God doesn't mean you own it. It's an anointing for service. Fact is we don't know why Elisha died. You can't say that was God's perfect will for that to have happened. The Bible just tells you what occurred.
Timothy was Paul's “son in the faith” yet he suffered from frequent stomach problems.
The water was bad and he told him to drink a wine for it....a little bit of wine sterilizes bad water.....be like telling one today don't hesitate to take a little Pepto bismo . Point is the human body functions a certain way and we need to accommodate and support it to make it work in a proper way.
 
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Guojing

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Yes it was. But in his soverirngty he has a time he was going to do this and we can see why. What else could you call being raised from the dead except healing.

It was the will of God for Lazarus to be make whole. He just had his time for doing it.

It was supposed to be a sign for the nation of Israel. (John 20:30-31)

He died again later, like everyone else.
 
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Strong in Him

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Sorry SW but there's no real excuse for you not accepting the word of God the Bible and saying it hasn't said enough to confirm it is God's will to heal all.
If it was God's will to heal all, he would heal all. All Christians who go to healing services, ask for pray, confess his name, his power and his ability to heal.
Yet .... Joni is still in a wheelchair, David Watson died from cancer, John Wimber died, I think from a brain tumour. John Stott, Roy Castle, C.S Lewis and many Christian writers, evangelists, healers and clergy, all dead - some without having received the healing that God, apparently, wanted.
 
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Aaron112

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from gotquestions: (just noting God does not heal everyone , not nearly)

"Jesus referred to future plagues associated with the last days (Luke 21:11). The two witnesses of Revelation 11 will have power “to strike the earth with every kind of plague as often as they want” (Revelation 11:6). Seven angels will wield seven plagues in a series of final, severe judgments described in Revelation 16."
 
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Bobber

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It was supposed to be a sign for the nation of Israel. (John 20:30-31)

He died again later, like everyone else.
With Lazarus being raised it was not just a sign to Israel. Sure it impacted the nation of Israel but the knowledge of it was to impact Gentiles people's as well as they would come to hear it..

But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. John 20: 31

When John wrote that you might believe he was not talking to just those in Israel. It's suggested by historians that John probably wasn't written until the middle or late part of the 1st Century.

And to your point that Lazarus died later like everyone else sure he did. Sure he did. Us who believe God heals don't hold that men in this life will live forever.
 
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swordsman1

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He asked the Jewish elders to plead with Jesus to come to his place believing he'd be willing to heal.
No it doesn't say that. You are reading something into scripture something that isn't there. That is the fallacy of eisegesis. If someone simply asks for healing the most you can conclude is they believe that God is able to give it, not that He will give it. A child can ask their father for candy, knowing that he is certainly able to give it to them, but whether he will or not is a completely different matter. In the vast majority of healings in the NT the sick person only asks for healing. Only once does someone believe they will receive it. So having that level of faith is clearly the exception to the rule. It is not required.
 
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Bobber

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That's what the verse says, "Jesus told his disciples a parable to show that they should always pray and not give up."

The judge gave the woman what she wanted so that she wouldn't keep coming back and pestering him. God is not like that judge - he doesn't want us to stop praying; indeed he tells us to persevere.
Yes persevere in faith and he said in the text will he find FAITH in the earth. A faith which believes God answers speedily and stand fast in believing he has and does when you pray or in other words God is not like the unjust judge.
 
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Bobber

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No it doesn't say that. You are reading something into scripture something that isn't there. That is the fallacy of eisegesis. If someone simply asks for healing the most you can conclude is they believe that God is able to give it, not that He will give it.
There isn't a record of ONE time where one came to Jesus and he refused to heal them. Why should you not think the Centurion would not know about that when he heard about what was going on with Jesus. Again can you show me one time in the gospels where ANYONE came to Jesus where he said he was not willing to heal? Except for an odd case like Lazarus where God was going to raise him up but in a different way.

 
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swordsman1

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You can't see that it's supposed to be saying to readers to IT IS HE WILL OF GOD to heal the sick and all the sick....as in is any sick among you?
No, it's not saying that at all. It is saying what is clearly written in the text, "Lord, if you are willing, you can make me clean". The clear message is that the only faith needed for healing is to believe that Jesus is able to heal, and that it is conditional upon it being his will...."IF you are willing".
Show me one time, one time, even just one time where anyone came to Jesus wanting and longing to be healed and he said NO it's not my will to make this happen? Show it to me in Matthew, Mark, Luke or John. I don't think you'll find such a case.
That's not the point. Of course Jesus healed everyone who came to him. He had to prove to everyone that he was from God. The question for our debate is what did those came to him believe. Like the leper they only believed he was able to heal, and that healing was conditional upon it being his will. 1 John 5:14 clearly states that all prayer is conditional upon it being God's will. And I've quoted numerous verses that show it is not always God's will.

And I believe you've missed it again the way you're looking at this verse. They believe he was able to do it......notice he touched their eyes.....and now according to your faith be it done unto you......according to what faith? According to your faith that you're believing you receive when my hands touch your eyes, or consider it this way ....according to your faith to see yourself with the answer. You believe I'm able now will you believe that you receive it? According to this type of faith you will cause the power of God to effect a cure. Faith is believing you receive when you pray....Mark 11:24 says exactly that.
Oh come off it. That is really twisting the text. "According to your faith" is clearly referring to the faith referred to in the previous sentence.

Jesus said to them, “Do you believe that I am able to do this?” They said to him, “Yes, Lord.” Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith be it done to you.”
 
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swordsman1

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Peter and John knew they were given authority in the Name of Jesus. They had what we call today the Power of Attorney.....Jesus gave them his name.....the Name of Jesus took the place of the risen Christ. In the name of Jesus there is salvation, in the name of Jesus there IS healing, deliverance and anything that has one bound. I'm not even sure nor can we how much the lame man even knew about Jesus Name

that is as something for healing Peter and John most certainly knew. You can see it in Acts 3 16 By faith in the name of Jesus, this man whom you see and know has been made strong. It is Jesus’ name and the faith that comes through Him that has given him this complete healing in your presence. So for Peter to even say that confirms to us that healing is for all for salvation is in that NAME too. To say healing is not for all is to say a part of the Name of Jesus is not for every believer. Scripture says we are also baptized into Jesus name. Not just baptized in the name but also into it as well.

On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. Acts 19:5
What Peter and John knew is irrelevant to our what we are talking about here. The question is what did the lame man believe? It wasn't that he would definitely be healed.
 
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swordsman1

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Well you've rejected Isaiah 53: 4 which says,

But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.

When all the time in Matthew 8: 14, 17 he healed PHYSCIALY Peter's mother-in-law of a fever which led to all other oppressed and sick people coming to Jesus to receive healing themselves. And in verse 17 it uses this statement from Isaiah 53:4 as the backing to why the physically sick would be healed. Point....the curse was laid on Jesus.....the curse of sickness and that's what Duet 28 calls it.....the curse of the law.

Sorry SW but there's no real excuse for you not accepting the word of God the Bible and saying it hasn't said enough to confirm it is God's will to heal all.
Isaiah 53: 4 does not say that. You are confusing the 2 verses.

Verse 4 was the prophecy that was fulfilled in Jesus's healing ministry. Not verse 5. If it was to include v5 Matthew would have included it. Verse 5 deals with the wounds inflicted upon Jesus when he went to the cross. A completely different subject to his healing ministry.

And note that Matthew said that the prophecy in v4 was fulfilled by Jesus when he walked the earth. He never said it was an ongoing prophecy for us today.
 
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swordsman1

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To suffer what? Sickness and disease? You might want to consider that it's talking about persecution. Jesus said in this world you will suffer tribulation. John 16:33 It's not even talking about sickness and physical disease.
Sorry but you're wrong. The verses include all suffering. Not just persecution suffering. Sickness and disease also result in suffering. If it was restricted to just persecution suffering the verses would explicitly say so.


Sorry but you're misapplying the scriptures and not rightly dividing the word of truth. Your trials are not the curse of the law for the Bible says we are redeemed from the curse. Gal 3:13
Please do not misrepresent me. I never said that trails were the curse of the law. The trails that God allows us to suffer are not punishment for breaking God's law, they are for our benefit as is clearly stated.

Even if one were to argue that's even talking about sickness that would still not mean it's not the perfect will of God for the one to be healed and well. You need to consider that.
I have no need to consider that, because scripture doesn't say that it is "the perfect will of God for the one to be healed and well" as you claim.

But you're missing the very thing you should get from the above. Jesus bore that suffering physical affliction paid for by his wounds for it wasn't the will of the Father God that you and I would have to.
Luke 22:42 says nothing of the sort. And nor does Isaiah 53 (it says we are healed from sin, not physical sickness).

Yes it was. But in his soverirngty he has a time he was going to do this and we can see why. What else could you call being raised from the dead except healing.
No it wasn't. God did not heal Lazarus from his sickness. He died from it. It was God's will for him to become sick and die so that "the Son of God may be glorified" John 11:4.

Fact is we don't know why Elisha died. You can't say that was God's perfect will for that to have happened. The Bible just tells you what occurred.
Oh yes we do know why Elisha died. It was from a sickness....

1 Kings 13:14 "Now when Elisha had fallen sick with the illness of which he was to die"

God did not heal him.

The water was bad and he told him to drink a wine for it....a little bit of wine sterilizes bad water.....be like telling one today don't hesitate to take a little Pepto bismo . Point is the human body functions a certain way and we need to accommodate and support it to make it work in a proper way.
I'm afraid you are wrong again. The water was not bad. The Greek verb which translated "drink only water" is ὑδροπότει. Every other known use of this verb in antiquity means to drink only water in the sense of abstaining from wine. Timothy was a teetotaller.

Wine was used for medicinal purposes to treat illnesses, which Timothy frequently suffered from. But the point, which you are missing, is that Timothy was not healed of his illnesses, despite the undoubted prayers of himself and Paul.
 
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Bobber

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No, it's not saying that at all. It is saying what is clearly written in the text, "Lord, if you are willing, you can make me clean". The clear message is that the only faith needed for healing is to believe that Jesus is able to heal, and that it is conditional upon it being his will...."IF you are willing".
I know he asked, "If you are willing" But the answer to that is meant to be understood for all humanity....I am willing to heal you. If you're wanting to reject that as a universal truth that is meant to apply to you then I guess you'll stay in your place of uncertainty. Others will accept healing as a part of God's ordered grace but just remember no questioning God why God why at some future time when all the time you've set aside you're to believe you receive when you pray. Mk 11:24You've openly said here you won't do that.
That's not the point. Of course Jesus healed everyone who came to him. He had to prove to everyone that he was from God.
I'd say you've overlooked one of the greatest reasons Jesus healed the sick and that it because of God's mercy and compassion. Religious leaders in Christ's day did the same. They created theological frameworks which removed the heart of God out their way of thinking. This would lead them into not even accepting that Jesus should heal on the sabbath day. OK why did Jesus heal the sick. To prove his deity? That's a part of it but don't set aside the heart of God. He healed because of his compassion.

But the crowds found out about it and followed Him on foot from the towns. 14When He stepped ashore and saw a large crowd, He had compassion on them and healed their sick. Matt 14:30

So is Jesus the same loving compassionate Savior today? Is he the same yesterday, today and forever? Is he something else than what he was in the gospels? I think not. God, Jesus has just as much compassion and love to all of us today as he had to the people of his day! And what did he do for them? He brought them HEALING. He loves us in the exact same measure that is for those who'll believe. You also have the theological guarantee it's yours as well so no need to doubt his willingness. By his stripes we are healed Is 53:4 should cover that and for the very reason he used Is 53:4 as a backing to heal physically the crowds in Mt 8: 17 should confirm it beyond question.


 
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