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For those who might not know what AOD stands for, it stands for the abomination of desolation.
How so that Daniel 12:13 undeniably proves that the AOD fits in the end of this age, not 2000 years ago? Simple, this is how.
Daniel 12:13 But go thou thy way till the end be: for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days.
The first thing to note is what this says. This says at the end of the days. The end of what days? How can it not be meaning these days recorded in the following verses? In case anyone wants to argue with this logic, is anyone going to argue that Daniel rises before these days are even fulfilled first?
Daniel 12:11 And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days.
12 Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.
Obviously, since ch 12 mentions no more days beyond the 1335th day recorded in verse 12, this means that the 1335th day is when we have reached the end of the days pertaining to verse 13.
Is anyone going to argue, the fact Daniel has been dead for ages now, that this---for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days---does not mean that he remains bodily dead until he stands in his lot at the end of the days? Is anyone going to argue that when he stands in his lot that this is not because of what is recorded in Daniel 12:2? Is anyone going to argue, that when he stands in his lot at the end of the days, that this is not meaning during/after what is recorded in verse 1? And as to the 1335th day recorded in Daniel 12:12, is anyone going to argue that one can come to that day without it even first involving the 1290 days recorded in verse 11?
Assuming Matthew 24:15-21 is allegedly involving the first century and 70 AD like many interpreters adamantly insist, is anyone going to argue that Daniel stood in his lot at the end of the days involving the first century leading up to 70AD, that he rose from the dead, meaning verse 2 in Daniel 12, right after 70 AD was fulfilled?
Probably no one would argue any of these things above, right? But why not if one is already arguing that Matthew 24:15-21 is involving the first century leading up to 70 AD? Which then logically means we have to apply both Daniel 12:11 and Daniel 12:12 to that of the first century leading up to 70 AD. Which then logically means that Daniel rose from the dead right after 70 AD. Except there is no logic to any of this and everyone knows it. So why then interpret some of these things in a manner such as this, that it makes nonsense out of what is recorded in Daniel 12?
In order for any interpretation to be a possibility, it can't defy logic, it has to be logical at least. There is nothing logical about applying Daniel 12:11 and Daniel 12:12 to that of the first century and 70 AD since this would mean the end of the days meant in Daniel 12:13, that this has arrived shortly after 70 AD, and that Daniel rose from the dead following 70 AD.
How so that Daniel 12:13 undeniably proves that the AOD fits in the end of this age, not 2000 years ago? Simple, this is how.
Daniel 12:13 But go thou thy way till the end be: for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days.
The first thing to note is what this says. This says at the end of the days. The end of what days? How can it not be meaning these days recorded in the following verses? In case anyone wants to argue with this logic, is anyone going to argue that Daniel rises before these days are even fulfilled first?
Daniel 12:11 And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days.
12 Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.
Obviously, since ch 12 mentions no more days beyond the 1335th day recorded in verse 12, this means that the 1335th day is when we have reached the end of the days pertaining to verse 13.
Is anyone going to argue, the fact Daniel has been dead for ages now, that this---for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days---does not mean that he remains bodily dead until he stands in his lot at the end of the days? Is anyone going to argue that when he stands in his lot that this is not because of what is recorded in Daniel 12:2? Is anyone going to argue, that when he stands in his lot at the end of the days, that this is not meaning during/after what is recorded in verse 1? And as to the 1335th day recorded in Daniel 12:12, is anyone going to argue that one can come to that day without it even first involving the 1290 days recorded in verse 11?
Assuming Matthew 24:15-21 is allegedly involving the first century and 70 AD like many interpreters adamantly insist, is anyone going to argue that Daniel stood in his lot at the end of the days involving the first century leading up to 70AD, that he rose from the dead, meaning verse 2 in Daniel 12, right after 70 AD was fulfilled?
Probably no one would argue any of these things above, right? But why not if one is already arguing that Matthew 24:15-21 is involving the first century leading up to 70 AD? Which then logically means we have to apply both Daniel 12:11 and Daniel 12:12 to that of the first century leading up to 70 AD. Which then logically means that Daniel rose from the dead right after 70 AD. Except there is no logic to any of this and everyone knows it. So why then interpret some of these things in a manner such as this, that it makes nonsense out of what is recorded in Daniel 12?
In order for any interpretation to be a possibility, it can't defy logic, it has to be logical at least. There is nothing logical about applying Daniel 12:11 and Daniel 12:12 to that of the first century and 70 AD since this would mean the end of the days meant in Daniel 12:13, that this has arrived shortly after 70 AD, and that Daniel rose from the dead following 70 AD.
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