And when does faith have to be alive? Before or after salvation is received? According to Eph 2:8-9, a living faith must exist before salvation is received. Which means that the demonstration of it's life (actions) must precede our reception of grace.
Faith is alive in Christ before the demonstration of it's life (actions/works). Salvation is received by grace through faith, not works. We are made alive in Christ by grace through faith..created in Christ Jesus (FIRST) unto good works. (Ephesians 2:5-10)
You keep saying "after we place our faith in Jesus". That is meaningless if there is no action demonstrating (as you say) that our faith is alive. If there is no action, then there is no faith, and there is no salvation.
Placing our faith in Jesus for salvation is not meaningless because He is the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. (Romans 3:24-28) Merely "claiming" to have faith, but no action "follows" is useless and demonstrates that you haver an empty profession of faith/dead faith and not authentic faith. (James 2:14) Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit.
I would agree. Yet that mind change, which results in action change, also precedes our reception of salvation, because our forgiveness depends on our repentance.
Reception of salvation depends on a change of mind which results in faith in Christ for salvation as the new direction of that change of mind. The change in action "follows" our reception of salvation through faith. You continue to put the cart before the horse.
Then why is it that 1 Pet 3, Eph 5 and several others include water as a key ingredient in the baptism that saves? Why was Saul commanded to get up and be baptized and wash away his sins? If it was Spirit baptism alone that saved, then he could have stayed seated and been washed by the Spirit right there. Why did the eunuch point out water and ask to be baptized? Why did he and Philip stop the chariot, go down into the water, and then come back out of it? Yes, it is the Spirit that is doing the work, just as Col 2:11-14 says it is, but He does the work during water baptism as the Scriptures say He does.
These passages of scripture do not include water baptism as a key ingredient that saves. Those verses "on the surface" only appear to teach that at first glance if one ignore the context and the rest of scripture.
In what sense were Paul's sins washed away when he was water baptized? Not literally, but ceremonially, pointing to the blood of Christ by which sins are actually washed away. (1 John 1:7; Revelation 1:5) Here is an excellent article on Acts 22:16 -
WHAT IS TRUTH: Acts 22:16--Baptism Essential for Salvation?
Why wouldn't the eunuch point out water and ask to be baptized? We are commanded to receive water baptism after conversion. The eunuch's confession of faith in verse 37 -
"I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God" preceded his baptism in verse 38. In John 20:31, we read - but these are written that you may
believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name. *No mention of water baptism.
In Colossians 2:12, we read - buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were
raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead. Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about
"through faith" - and is
properly symbolized by baptizing the new believer.
No, I don't listen to false teachers who pervert the Word of God. Spirit baptism takes place during water baptism just as Acts 2:38 pictures, and Rom 6:1-4 and Col 2:11-14 both say.
Salvation by water baptism is a false teaching. Spirit baptism took place BEFORE water baptism for these Gentiles in Acts 10:43-48. Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who
believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins. 44 While Peter was still speaking these words,
the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word. 45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because
the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also. 46 For they heard them
speak with tongues and magnify God.
Then Peter answered, 47
“Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” (DID YOU SEE THAT?!) 48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then they asked him to stay a few days. *These Gentile believers clearly received Spirit baptism
BEFORE water baptism. So Spirit baptism does not take place during water baptism as you teach.
That is why haste is pictured in all the cases in the NT. And yes, according to Acts 2:38, 1 Pet 3:21, Eph 5:26, and others, water baptism is the point at which our souls are saved.
It's not about haste but availability. Water baptism is not the point as which our souls are saved. More EISEGESIS on your part. Faith in Christ is the point as which our souls are saved. (Acts 26:18; Romans 5:1; Ephesians 2:8 etc..). Ephesians 5:26 says
"washing of water by the word." This is not water baptism as I already thoroughly explained to you in post #1401. Go back and read my post again.
It's absolutely true. Read it again. These Gentiles in Acts 10
believed, received the gift of the Holy Spirit and spoke in tongues (which is a spiritual gift that is ONLY for the body of Christ -
1 Corinthians 12) and were saved
BEFORE receiving water baptism. This is irrefutable.
Read it again and harmonize it with Acts 11 and Rom 10:17.
No problem.
What is required for us to believe? Hearing the word.
Yes, faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God. (Romans 10:17)
When did the Holy Spirit fall on Cornelius? "As I [Peter] began to speak". Could Cornelius have believed yet? NO! He had not yet heard the Gospel. The Spirit falling on him before his salvation was a message to the Apostles that God had accepted the Gentiles into the Church just like the Jews. This is spelled out in Acts 11:17.
In Acts 11, Peter is explaining the events that took place in chapter 10. If you would finish reading through verse 17, you would see they received the Holy Spirit
WHEN they
BELIEVED ON THE LORD JESUS CHRIST, not before they heard nothing at all. *Compare this with Acts 16:31,
"BELIEVE ON THE LORD JESUS CHRIST AND YOU WILL BE SAVED." Acts 10:44 says,
"THE HOLY SPIRIT CAME ON ALL WHO HEARD THE MESSAGE," not on all who heard nothing.
Acts 10:44 - While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. "Began to speak" (Acts 11:15) and "still speaking" (Acts 10:44) are not in contradiction. Acts 10:44 says, while he was "still speaking," which means, he already started talking and said,
"WHOSOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM SHALL RECEIVE REMISSION OF SINS" (Acts 10:43). So obviously, began to speak can't mean, said nothing at all yet, because that would contradict,
"still speaking." There is a difference between "as" I began to speak and "before" I began to speak.
None of that is up for debate. Because it does not even begin to impact the meaning and relevance of 1 Pet 3 when it says that the water of the Flood is a foreshadowing of the water "that now saves you".
I already throughly explained 1 Peter 3:21 to you in posts #1359 and #1400. Be sure to go back and read them again.
Absolutely not. We are not saved by ourselves, never have been, and never could be. But if we do not obey Him, He will not save us. He already paid the price for our salvation. But if we do not do what He says, we do not receive the benefit of that payment.
You confuse obey Christ in order to become saved with obey Christ after we have been saved. The end result is works salvation.
J
ohn 3:18 clears up the error you have here. Those who do not believe are already condemned. Why? Because they have not believed in Jesus. But also because they have sinned and fallen short of the Glory of God. But you are doing what you accuse me of doing. You take a part of the passage that seems to say what you want Scripture to say, and you hone in on that section. Mark 16:16(a) is very clear. "He who believes and is baptized will be saved". This is very clear, unambiguous, and straight forward. When reading Scripture, unless there is compelling reason in the context, it is ALWAYS best to stick with the most clear, simple interpretation of a passage. This is very clear. He who believes AND is baptized will be saved. If you don't believe, you are already condemned because you didn't beleive in the first place. It is not that baptism isn't necessary, but that belief is the prerequisite to baptism having meaning.
Once again, there are many people throughout history who may have believed "mental assent" in the existence and in historical facts about Christ, but do not believe in Him unto salvation, yet receive water baptism anyway so your argument is moot and once again:
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? *
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. Case closed.
He was forgiven by the Lord, who had the power to forgive sin on Earth while He lived, before the Lord's death. Jesus' "last will and testament" was sealed in His blood upon His death. But He could make any changes to His will up to the point of His death. This has absolutely no bearing on our salvation today.
Are you saying that before the Lord's death, water baptism was not necessary for salvation, but after the Lord's death it is necessary for salvation? In Mark 1:4, we read - John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a
baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Now was this baptism of repentance for "in order to obtain" the forgiveness of sins or was it for "in regards to/on the basis of" the forgiveness of sins received upon repentance? *Be careful! John's baptism took place BEFORE the Lord's death.
I absolutely agree. It is not just the getting wet that saves. It is the heart condition of the person who gets wet. He who BELIEVES AND IS BAPTIZED will be saved.
Again, general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) B
UT HE WHO DOES NOT BELIEVE WILL BE CONDEMNED. *John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. *Hermeneutics.*
There are a number of alleged prooftexts which are often cited to prove that the Bible makes baptism mandatory for salvation. Some of the most common such prooftexts are Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16, John 3:5, Acts 22:16; Romans 6:4, and 1 Peter 3:21. A careful examination of each of these texts in context will show that none of them prove that baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation, though they do prove that baptism was an assumed initiatory response to the gospel of salvation. In other words, these texts prove only that baptism is
regularly associated with conversion and salvation, rather than absolutely required for salvation.
Wrong again. As Rom 10:9-10 says, confession with the mouth that Jesus is Lord precedes our reception of salvation. And as you said in an earlier post, confession with the mouth is a physical act.
It's not believes unto righteousness (still lost) then finally round up a group of people at Walmart next week and physically confess Christ to them then finally saved next week. That is not what Paul is teaching. You continue to miss the point.
That right there absolutely destroys the concept of "belief only" salvation.
What is the only thing mentioned in these numerous passages of scripture in connection with receiving salvation? (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 1 John 5:13 etc..). Only belief. That destroys your concept of belief + works salvation.
It eliminates the argument against "works based" salvation, because there can be no disagreement that this is a physical act, and that it MUST precede our reception of salvation.
Paul is talking about
the word of faith in our mouth and in our heart TOGETHER in Romans 10:8-10 and not a specific physical act that takes place a week after we believe unto righteousness then we are finally saved next week. Also belief/confession here precedes water baptism. You just don't get it.