All right, I'm looking forward to answering your questions now.
I've been busy recently, so having a list of specific questions is a good way for me to know what you'd like me to address. Thanks for making this list! If there are any points I don't address that you feel should be addressed, feel free to ask more questions. Okay, here we go!
Since I have answered all your questions and provided a detailed scripture response would you like to answer some of my questions which I will put up now for discussion.
QUESTIONS FOR DISCUSSION.
Where is the scripture that says.....
[1]. That God's 4th commandments 7th day Sabbath has been abolished and we are now commanded to keep Sunday as a Holy day of rest?
This question asks 1) where Scripture says the Sabbath has been abolished and 2) where we must keep Sunday as a holy day of rest. I'll first answer 2, since it's quicker: Nowhere. The Bible never says we must "keep Sunday as a Holy day of rest," so I can't teach that people must cease from work on Sundays. Some things are said about the "first day of the week," however, but a command to cease from work isn't one of them. I'll say more about the first day of the week later, as it pertains to other questions.
As for 1, where Scripture says the Sabbath has been abolished, the short answer would be Colossians 2:16-17. However, I believe I should explain myself further. You provided a thorough, in-depth answer to my Question 2, and now I'd like to provide a thorough answer to your Question 1. Let's see what Scripture has to say on the subject.
Genesis
The first book of the Bible begins by giving an account of the origin of the Universe. While all Scripture is for everyone's benefit (2 Timothy 3:16-17), it's also important to know the original audience of a book that we're reading. For example, 1 and 2 Timothy were written to Timothy, while 1 and 2 Corinthians were written to the church at Corinth. In the same way, while Genesis is for everyone's benefit, it was written by Moses for the Israelites, and thus, they're the original audience. The Book of Genesis, then, is written from a Jewish point of view.
The Book begins by explaining how God created the Universe (Genesis 1:1). This would be good for everyone to know at the time Genesis was written, but especially for Israel since they needed to know that their God is the God of everything, as opposed to idols, who were allegedly gods over specific things (love, light, death, etc.).
Many things happen during the creation week, but let's focus specifically on Days 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. On Day 3, we're told that dry land and seas were created (Genesis 1:9-10), as well as vegetation (Genesis 1:11-13). On Day 4, the sun, moon, and stars are created (Genesis 1:14-19). They were created with a purpose; while time certainly existed before the sun, moon, and stars did, the lights were designed for future use, to determine days, months, years, signs, and seasons.
Since the audience were Jews, it's likely that the "seasons" refer either exclusively to, or at least include, "the sacred seasons as fixed by moon's appearance" (Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon), looking forward to how they'd need the sky lights. The "Scripture interpreting Scripture" approach would suggest this in "light" (no pun intended) of Psalms 104:19, where the moon in particular is made for "seasons." The moon doesn't by itself cause spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter, but it can be used by itself to determine the sacred seasons. In fact, if Genesis 1:14 refers to spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter, it'd be the only place in the entire Bible I know of where
mo‘ed [H4150] is translated "seasons" that would have that sense of the word. I don't know of a single other passage where
mo‘ed [H4150] refers to spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter.
So the Jewish audience combined with the word usage of
mo‘ed [H4150] agree that the verse either refers specifically to sacred Jewish seasons, or at least includes them. With this in mind, it points not just a few days in the future, but to centuries in the future. This is because something can be made "for" someone without them receiving it till a future point.
On Days 5 and 6, various animals were created (Genesis 1:20-25). However, distinct from animals and made in the image of God is man, who also was created on Day 6 (Genesis 1:26-27). It wasn't until now that the herbs, sky lights, and animals could be used by man (Genesis 1:28-31). So while God made things for Adam and his descendants, they weren't given until later. My point in all this is that the time something is "made" doesn't necessarily prove 1) who it's for or 2) when it's given.
This brings us to Day 7, where God is shown to rest (Genesis 2:1-2). He blesses and sanctifies the seventh day (Genesis 2:3). Does this mean anything for us? Genesis doesn't say whether it does, but it does say that God blessed the seventh day and rested on it. It doesn't say whether Adam and Eve rested on the Sabbath or whether it was just a day for God at this point in time. Anything more we learn about the seventh day must be learned from other passages, which we'll get to soon.
Is there an application for us? Again, the text in Genesis doesn't say. There are two different interpretations people have made about God resting on the seventh day and sanctifying it:
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it specifically with His special people, the nation of Israel. This view seems to be the one held by the Jewish audience. Or at least, it's the view held by the Jewish author of Jubilees (pseudepigrapha.com/jubilees/2.htm, notice particularly verses 16-17, 31-32).
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it with all mankind. This is the view that I believe you hold to.
Since Jews in particular were the original audience, it's at least somewhat significant that the Jewish author of Jubilees doesn't see any conflict with 1) God making the seventh day holy and 2) the Sabbath being specifically for the Jews, not Gentiles. Who's to say that his interpretation is wrong and yours is correct? I'm sure we'd agree that it isn't us but the word of God itself that's the ultimate authority on what it means. Since Genesis itself doesn't say which interpretation is the correct one, we must go elsewhere. So let's do that!
Mark 2:27
This is a passage you brought up which, you argue, answers the question of who the Sabbath was made for. I will concede that it says the Sabbath was "made" for man
and that it was made for "man" (Greek,
ánthrōpos). In other words, I agree that the Sabbath was made, and the recipient of the Sabbath is man (Greek,
ánthrōpos). However, there are two things to consider.
First, just because the Sabbath was made doesn't tell us
who it was for. In fact, even knowing
when the Sabbath was made doesn't tell us
who it's for! The author of Jubilees, for example, didn't see any contradiction with 1) the seventh day rest beginning at the end of the creation week and 2) the Sabbath being for the Jews specifically, not the Gentiles, so why should we unless Scripture says so? Another point worth considering is that, if the Sabbath were an eternal law without beginning or end, how is it the case that it was "made"? This suggests that it isn't a timeless law, but one with a beginning.
Second, even the fact that it was made for "man" (Greek,
ánthrōpos) doesn't necessarily prove the audience is all mankind (though, if this were the only passage on the Sabbath, I'd say it'd serve as a good argument favoring all mankind as the recipients of the Sabbath). The reason I say this is because whenever "man" (Greek,
ánthrōpos) is used in connection with a practice that's clearly part of the now-obsolete old covenant, which was just for physical Israel, then "man" (Greek,
ánthrōpos) actually refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind."
Proof for this includes the fact that in John 7:22-23, Jesus says the Jews would "circumcise a
man [Greek,
anthropos] on the Sabbath" (NKJV, emphasis mine). Also, Hebrews 5:1-3 says that every high priest is taken from among "men" (Greek,
anthropos) and appointed for "men" (Greek,
anthropos) to offer sacrifices for sins, including his own sin. Also, Hebrews 7:28 explains that "the law appoints
men [Greek,
anthropos] as high priests who have weakness," (WEB, emphasis mine). I'm sure we agree that since these three passages all refer to obsolete practices of the old covenant, which were just for physical Israel, then "man" (Greek,
ánthrōpos) in these three passages actually refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind."
This is because, as you've said, context is key in knowing what a word means, and the context demands the sense of "Jews" in John 7:22-23, Hebrews 5:1-3, and Hebrews 7:28. However, while we agree on these three passages, is the same true in
Mark 2:27? Here's how we can tell, using the principle we just established for the other three passages:
If the Sabbath is a practice that's specifically for physical Israel, part of the obsolete old covenant and not for everyone, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in Mark 2:27 refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind."
So that's the key.
Again, if the Scriptures teach that the Sabbath is specifically for physical Israel in connection with the obsolete old covenant, not something for everyone, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in Mark 2:27 doesn't mean anything more than it means in John 7:22-23, Hebrews 5:1-3, or Hebrews 7:28—that is, "Jews."
With this in mind, let's see what other Scriptures say on the matter.
The intended recipients of the Sabbath
As said earlier, the reason God rested on the seventh day isn't said in Genesis. Because Genesis doesn't come out and say why, two interpretations are advocated:
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it specifically with His special people, the nation of Israel. Again, this is the view apparently held by the Jewish audience. Or at least, it's the view held by the Jewish author of Jubilees (pseudepigrapha.com/jubilees/2.htm, notice particularly verses 16-17, 31-32).
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it with all mankind. This is the view that I believe you hold to.
In order to know what interpretation is right, we need the Scriptures to tell us. Interestingly, the word "Sabbath" never appears in Genesis. God clearly rested on the seventh day, but even in that section, the word "Sabbath" isn't used. We don't read anything about it as we go through all the rest of Genesis, with Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and Joseph, etc. However, we do read about the Sabbath after Moses brought Israel out of Egypt. For the first time in the Bible, the word "Sabbath" is used in Exodus 16:23. Whether you'd say the Sabbath was
introduced through Moses (as I'd think) or whether you'd say it was
re-introduced (as
maybe you'd say?), it's clear that before this, the Sabbath wasn't known by the Israelites since the Sabbath was "made known" to Israel "By the hand of Moses" (Nehemiah 9:14, NKJV). You can't "make" something known to people if it's
already known to them, right?
Was the Sabbath to be given to all nations or to Israel? In Exodus 31:17, God says, "It is a
sign between Me and the children of Israel forever;
for in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, and on the seventh day He rested and was refreshed" (NKJV, emphasis mine).
Notice, it's a "sign" between God and Israel, and the word "for" connects it with the creation week of Genesis. So this is telling us why God rested on the seventh day! If this verse had only said to keep the Sabbath, it'd be
possible that nations other than the children of Israel would be expected to observe it. (I say "possible" because we'd have to look elsewhere to see if those other than Israel were commanded.) However, since Exodus 31:17 specifically says it's a "sign" between God and Israel, this makes it
impossible that nations other than the children of Israel would be expected to observe it.
How so? Well, we'd agree that circumcision was a sign connected with God's everlasting covenant with Abraham and his children (Genesis 17:10-14), and I think we'd also agree that because it was a "sign" for Abraham and his children, this proves it wasn't for other people, right? After all, how can something be a sign distinguishing Abraham and his children from other people, if everyone was already being circumcised? So if something is given as a sign, not only is it
for the ones the sign is between, but it's
only for them.
In the same way, since the Sabbath was a sign connected with God's perpetual covenant with Israel (Exodus 31:12-18), it wasn't for other people. And the reason it's "a sign" (and thus
specifically, only) between God and Israel is "for" (because) God rested on the seventh day back in Genesis. This is God's interpretation of why He rested, and so it's the true one. Let's look again at the two interpretations of why God rested:
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it specifically with His special people, the nation of Israel.
- God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it with all mankind.
In Exodus 31:17, God Himself says that the first interpretation is the correct one. Israel would keep the Sabbath
as a sign because God rested on the seventh day, distinguishing them from the other nations. So, like with the sacred seasons of Genesis 1:14 and Psalms 104:19, it appears the seven-day rest also had a future use,
for Israel to keep the Sabbath. Again, how can something be a sign for Israel if it already existed for everyone?
There are many passages reinforcing this very thing. I'll close this section with such passages:
"You
made known to them Your holy Sabbath, And commanded them precepts, statutes and laws,
By the hand of Moses Your servant" (Nehemiah 9:14, NKJV, emphasis mine). Quoted earlier, this passage makes it clear that God "made known" the commandments, statues, and laws, and especially His holy Sabbath, through Moses' hand. It couldn't have been "made known" by Moses if it were already known.
"Therefore I made
them [i.e., Israel] go out of the land of Egypt and brought them into the wilderness. And I gave them My statutes and showed them My judgments, ‘which, if a man does, he shall live by them.’ Moreover I also
gave them My Sabbaths, to be
a sign between them and Me, that they might know that I am
the LORD who sanctifies them" (Ezekiel 20:12, NKJV, emphasis mine). So while Genesis may show when the Sabbath was "made" (assuming God's seventh-day rest is called a "Sabbath"), it doesn't show when it was "given." When we go to this passage in Ezekiel, we're told
when the Sabbath was given (after Egypt),
to whom it was given (Israel), and
why it was given—to be a "sign" showing that God "sanctifies them" (i.e., sets them apart). This passage makes clear that the Sabbath was given
during Israel,
for Israel, and
only for Israel (i.e., to set them apart). And again, how can you "give" something to someone if they
already have it? This shows Israel
didn't have the Sabbath before Moses.
I could reference more passages, but I think this section's long enough, haha! Anyway, since it's clear that the Sabbath is specifically, only for Israel, I suppose you could reply that we're Israel today, spiritual Israel. However, spiritual Israel is under a new covenant, not the one that national, physical Israel was under (Hebrews 8:6-13). More on this below.
Continued in the next post.
