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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath (i.e., ceasing from work on the seventh day of the week, Saturday) was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews. While some things are commanded in the Old Testament for Israel (and thus are not binding on Christians today), such as circumcision, other commands are universal and apply at all times, such as the prohibition against murder and adultery. The following is a three-reason case for the position that the Sabbath is a Mosaic shadow. If my case is flawed, you're my friend to let me know.



The Old Testament itself

First off, the Sabbath is said to be connected with the covenant of the children of Israel. To my knowledge, the rest of humankind is never told to observe the Sabbath (excluding proselytes to Judaism, of course). For example, Exodus 31:16–17 says specifically, "Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant" (NKJV, emphasis mine). We’re not under the old, Mosaic covenant, since it was made obsolete by the new, universal covenant (Hebrews 8:8-13).


Similarly, Nehemiah 9:5-15 lists a brief chronology of God's people from creation to Moses, emphasizing all that God had done, and puts the Sabbath as being “made known” during the time of Moses—not the time of creation (Nehemiah 9:6) or even the time of Abraham (Nehemiah 9:7-8), but the time of Moses (Nehemiah 9:14). (Granted, God blesses the seventh day in Genesis 2:2‐3, but it doesn’t say man did so. We never see man told to keep the Sabbath until Moses. More on this later.)


Ezekiel 20:10-12 mentions both points made in Exodus and Nehemiah: This passage mentions how God brought Israel out of Egypt (v. 10), how He gave them statues and judgements (v. 11), and how He gave them His Sabbaths "to be a sign between them and Me" (v. 12, NKJV).


So in Exodus, the Sabbath is specifically tied to the Mosaic covenant with Israel. In Nehemiah, God isn't said to have made the Sabbath known until the time of Moses. In Ezekiel's account, both are said to be the case, that God 1) "gave" the Sabbath during the time of Moses and 2) did so to be a sign between Israel and God.


Universal laws, such as the prohibition of murder, are condemned everywhere—before Moses (Genesis 9:6), during Moses (Exodus 20:13), and after Moses (Revelation 21:8). If the Sabbath were a universal law, why are Jews always the ones told to keep it, never the Gentiles (other than proselytes to Judaism, of course), and why is Israel singled out as the people it's for?



Jesus's treatment of the Sabbath

While Jesus was on earth, did He treat the Sabbath as a universal law like the universal laws against murder or adultery, or did He see it more in line with the Mosaic commandments like circumcision and eating only meats considered clean?


Regarding universal laws such as murder or adultery, we see that Jesus was stricter than the Pharisees in passages such as Matthew 5:17-30. However, He was more lenient than the Pharisees on the Sabbath. When the Pharisees confronted Him about it, Jesus referenced certain Mosaic laws that overrode the practice of the Sabbath on special occasions. He referenced work the priests did in the temple (Matthew 12:5) and circumcision (John 1:21-24), among other things.


Could Mosaic laws ever supersede a universal law such as murder or adultery? I don’t think so. Yet, Mosaic laws did supersede the Sabbath. Thus, Jesus' defense for doing the things He and His disciples did on the Sabbath assumes the Sabbath is a Mosaic law, not a universal law that could never be superseded.



The Sabbath as a shadow

Finally, Hebrews 4:1-11 tells us to make sure we don't fall short of God's rest (Hebrews 4:1). However, those who heard God's good news before us were rejected, God swearing they would not enter His rest (Hebrews 4:2-3). However, God's work was finished from the foundation of the world when He rested on the seventh day of creation, but He says those who rejected Him won't enter His rest (Hebrews 4:3-5).


There has to be some people who enter God's rest, though, so there’s another day, "Today," referenced back in Psalm 95:7-8 (Hebrews 4:6-7). This proves that God's rest isn't merely the physical Promised Land, since Psalm 95 was written after they entered the Promised Land, so it's speaking of another day (Hebrews 4:8). Therefore, there remains a Sabbath rest for God's people (Hebrews 4:9). It obviously isn't the literal Sabbath, but rather a rest we must be diligent to enter (Hebrews 4:10-12).


It seems that Sabbatarians have a point in saying the Sabbath commanded for Israel was connected with Genesis 2:2-3, in which God rested on the seventh day (Exodus 20:11; Exodus 31:16‐17). However, isn't Hebrews 4 saying that our Sabbath rest is found in the rest that "remains" for God's people, the one we must be diligent to “enter,” rather than in keeping the literal Sabbath? Doesn't the passage suggest that the Mosaic Sabbath is a shadow of something bigger, of the rest that we're obtaining as Christians? If so, then it seems Paul would tell us not to be judged about the old Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16–17 (NKJV, emphasis mine):


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.


Mosaic practices are shadows, and it seems the Sabbath qualifies as such.



Conclusion

As argued, the Sabbath 1) was given specifically as part of a covenant with Israel, not other nations; 2) was treated as a Mosaic covenant (not a universal law) by Jesus; and 3) is spoken of as being a shadow of something greater.


Do these arguments hold up? They each are independent arguments, so if any of them stand, then the Sabbath is not binding on Christians today. Conversely, if the Sabbath is binding, then all three arguments would have to be false, from what I can tell.


I'm open to hearing the other side, as that's the best way to "Test all things" in order to see if my train of thought qualifies as "what is good" (1 Thess. 5:21, NKJV). I certainly wouldn't want to think something isn't binding if, in reality, it is. Thanks in advance for your input!
 
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HTacianas

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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews. While some things are commanded in the Old Testament for Israel (and thus are not binding on Christians today), such as circumcision, other commands are universal and apply at all times, such as the prohibition against murder and adultery. The following is a three-reason case for the position that the Sabbath is a Mosaic shadow. If my case is flawed, you're my friend to let me know.



The Old Testament itself

First off, the Sabbath is said to be connected with the covenant of the children of Israel. To my knowledge, the rest of humankind is never told to observe the Sabbath (excluding proselytes to Judaism, of course). For example, Exodus 31:16–17 says specifically, "Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant" (NKJV, emphasis mine). We’re not under the old, Mosaic covenant, since it was made obsolete by the new, universal covenant (Hebrews 8:8-13).


Similarly, Nehemiah 9:5-15 lists a brief chronology of God's people from creation to Moses, emphasizing all that God had done, and puts the Sabbath as being “made known” during the time of Moses—not the time of creation (Nehemiah 9:6) or even the time of Abraham (Nehemiah 9:7-8), but the time of Moses (Nehemiah 9:14). (Granted, God blesses the seventh day in Genesis 2:2‐3, but it doesn’t say man did so. We never see man told to keep the Sabbath until Moses. More on this later.)


Ezekiel 20:10-12 mentions both points made in Exodus and Nehemiah: This passage mentions how God brought Israel out of Egypt (v. 10), how He gave them statues and judgements (v. 11), and how He gave them His Sabbaths "to be a sign between them and Me" (v. 12, NKJV).


So in Exodus, the Sabbath is specifically tied to the Mosaic covenant with Israel. In Nehemiah, God isn't said to have made the Sabbath known until the time of Moses. In Ezekiel's account, both are said to be the case, that God 1) "gave" the Sabbath during the time of Moses and 2) did so to be a sign between Israel and God.


Universal laws, such as the prohibition of murder, are condemned everywhere—before Moses (Genesis 9:6), during Moses (Exodus 20:13), and after Moses (Revelation 21:8). If the Sabbath were a universal law, why are Jews always the ones told to keep it, never the Gentiles (other than proselytes to Judaism, of course), and why is Israel singled out as the people it's for?



Jesus's treatment of the Sabbath

While Jesus was on earth, did He treat the Sabbath as a universal law like the universal laws against murder or adultery, or did He see it more in line with the Mosaic commandments like circumcision and eating only meats considered clean?


Regarding universal laws such as murder or adultery, we see that Jesus was stricter than the Pharisees in passages such as Matthew 5:17-30. However, He was more lenient than the Pharisees on the Sabbath. When the Pharisees confronted Him about it, Jesus referenced certain Mosaic laws that overrode the practice of the Sabbath on special occasions. He referenced work the priests did in the temple (Matthew 12:5) and circumcision (John 1:21-24), among other things.


Could Mosaic laws ever supersede a universal law such as murder or adultery? I don’t think so. Yet, Mosaic laws did supersede the Sabbath. Thus, Jesus' defense for doing the things He and His disciples did on the Sabbath assumes the Sabbath is a Mosaic law, not a universal law that could never be superseded.



The Sabbath as a shadow

Finally, Hebrews 4:1-11 tells us to make sure we don't fall short of God's rest (Hebrews 4:1). However, those who heard God's good news before us were rejected, God swearing they would not enter His rest (Hebrews 4:2-3). However, God's work was finished from the foundation of the world when He rested on the seventh day of creation, but He says those who rejected Him won't enter His rest (Hebrews 4:3-5).


There has to be some people who enter God's rest, though, so there’s another day, "Today," referenced back in Psalm 95:7-8 (Hebrews 4:6-7). This proves that God's rest isn't merely the physical Promised Land, since Psalm 95 was written after they entered the Promised Land, so it's speaking of another day (Hebrews 4:8). Therefore, there remains a Sabbath rest for God's people (Hebrews 4:9). It obviously isn't the literal Sabbath, but rather a rest we must be diligent to enter (Hebrews 4:10-12).


It seems that Sabbatarians have a point in saying the Sabbath commanded for Israel was connected with Genesis 2:2-3, in which God rested on the seventh day (Exodus 20:11; Exodus 31:16‐17). However, isn't Hebrews 4 saying that our Sabbath rest is found in the rest that "remains" for God's people, the one we must be diligent to “enter,” rather than in keeping the literal Sabbath? Doesn't the passage suggest that the Mosaic Sabbath is a shadow of something bigger, of the rest that we're obtaining as Christians? If so, then it seems Paul would tell us not to be judged about the old Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16–17 (NKJV, emphasis mine):


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.


Mosaic practices are shadows, and it seems the Sabbath qualifies as such.



Conclusion

As argued, the Sabbath 1) was given specifically as part of a covenant with Israel, not other nations; 2) was treated as a Mosaic covenant (not a universal law) by Jesus; and 3) is spoken of as being a shadow of something greater.


Do these arguments hold up? They each are independent arguments, so if any of them stand, then the Sabbath is not binding on Christians today. Conversely, if the Sabbath is binding, then all three arguments would have to be false, from what I can tell.


I'm open to hearing the other side, as that's the best way to "Test all things" in order to see if my train of thought qualifies as "what is good" (1 Thess. 5:21, NKJV). I certainly wouldn't want to think something isn't binding if, in reality, it is. Thanks in advance for your input!

This brief article will help answer your question.

Seven Laws of Noah - Wikipedia
 
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pescador

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The sabbath is intended to give people a day of rest beyond the normal daily necessary chores. Under the Old Covenant, it's a command not to do unnecessary work. Under the New Covenant, Christians are supposed to rest from doing their own works in order to be justified, and to rest in Christ.
 
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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath (i.e., ceasing from work on the seventh day of the week, Saturday) was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews. While some things are commanded in the Old Testament for Israel (and thus are not binding on Christians today), such as circumcision, other commands are universal and apply at all times, such as the prohibition against murder and adultery. The following is a three-reason case for the position that the Sabbath is a Mosaic shadow. If my case is flawed, you're my friend to let me know.



The Old Testament itself

First off, the Sabbath is said to be connected with the covenant of the children of Israel. To my knowledge, the rest of humankind is never told to observe the Sabbath (excluding proselytes to Judaism, of course). For example, Exodus 31:16–17 says specifically, "Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant" (NKJV, emphasis mine). We’re not under the old, Mosaic covenant, since it was made obsolete by the new, universal covenant (Hebrews 8:8-13).


Similarly, Nehemiah 9:5-15 lists a brief chronology of God's people from creation to Moses, emphasizing all that God had done, and puts the Sabbath as being “made known” during the time of Moses—not the time of creation (Nehemiah 9:6) or even the time of Abraham (Nehemiah 9:7-8), but the time of Moses (Nehemiah 9:14). (Granted, God blesses the seventh day in Genesis 2:2‐3, but it doesn’t say man did so. We never see man told to keep the Sabbath until Moses. More on this later.)


Ezekiel 20:10-12 mentions both points made in Exodus and Nehemiah: This passage mentions how God brought Israel out of Egypt (v. 10), how He gave them statues and judgements (v. 11), and how He gave them His Sabbaths "to be a sign between them and Me" (v. 12, NKJV).


So in Exodus, the Sabbath is specifically tied to the Mosaic covenant with Israel. In Nehemiah, God isn't said to have made the Sabbath known until the time of Moses. In Ezekiel's account, both are said to be the case, that God 1) "gave" the Sabbath during the time of Moses and 2) did so to be a sign between Israel and God.


Universal laws, such as the prohibition of murder, are condemned everywhere—before Moses (Genesis 9:6), during Moses (Exodus 20:13), and after Moses (Revelation 21:8). If the Sabbath were a universal law, why are Jews always the ones told to keep it, never the Gentiles (other than proselytes to Judaism, of course), and why is Israel singled out as the people it's for?



Jesus's treatment of the Sabbath

While Jesus was on earth, did He treat the Sabbath as a universal law like the universal laws against murder or adultery, or did He see it more in line with the Mosaic commandments like circumcision and eating only meats considered clean?


Regarding universal laws such as murder or adultery, we see that Jesus was stricter than the Pharisees in passages such as Matthew 5:17-30. However, He was more lenient than the Pharisees on the Sabbath. When the Pharisees confronted Him about it, Jesus referenced certain Mosaic laws that overrode the practice of the Sabbath on special occasions. He referenced work the priests did in the temple (Matthew 12:5) and circumcision (John 1:21-24), among other things.


Could Mosaic laws ever supersede a universal law such as murder or adultery? I don’t think so. Yet, Mosaic laws did supersede the Sabbath. Thus, Jesus' defense for doing the things He and His disciples did on the Sabbath assumes the Sabbath is a Mosaic law, not a universal law that could never be superseded.



The Sabbath as a shadow

Finally, Hebrews 4:1-11 tells us to make sure we don't fall short of God's rest (Hebrews 4:1). However, those who heard God's good news before us were rejected, God swearing they would not enter His rest (Hebrews 4:2-3). However, God's work was finished from the foundation of the world when He rested on the seventh day of creation, but He says those who rejected Him won't enter His rest (Hebrews 4:3-5).


There has to be some people who enter God's rest, though, so there’s another day, "Today," referenced back in Psalm 95:7-8 (Hebrews 4:6-7). This proves that God's rest isn't merely the physical Promised Land, since Psalm 95 was written after they entered the Promised Land, so it's speaking of another day (Hebrews 4:8). Therefore, there remains a Sabbath rest for God's people (Hebrews 4:9). It obviously isn't the literal Sabbath, but rather a rest we must be diligent to enter (Hebrews 4:10-12).


It seems that Sabbatarians have a point in saying the Sabbath commanded for Israel was connected with Genesis 2:2-3, in which God rested on the seventh day (Exodus 20:11; Exodus 31:16‐17). However, isn't Hebrews 4 saying that our Sabbath rest is found in the rest that "remains" for God's people, the one we must be diligent to “enter,” rather than in keeping the literal Sabbath? Doesn't the passage suggest that the Mosaic Sabbath is a shadow of something bigger, of the rest that we're obtaining as Christians? If so, then it seems Paul would tell us not to be judged about the old Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16–17 (NKJV, emphasis mine):


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.


Mosaic practices are shadows, and it seems the Sabbath qualifies as such.



Conclusion

As argued, the Sabbath 1) was given specifically as part of a covenant with Israel, not other nations; 2) was treated as a Mosaic covenant (not a universal law) by Jesus; and 3) is spoken of as being a shadow of something greater.


Do these arguments hold up? They each are independent arguments, so if any of them stand, then the Sabbath is not binding on Christians today. Conversely, if the Sabbath is binding, then all three arguments would have to be false, from what I can tell.


I'm open to hearing the other side, as that's the best way to "Test all things" in order to see if my train of thought qualifies as "what is good" (1 Thess. 5:21, NKJV). I certainly wouldn't want to think something isn't binding if, in reality, it is. Thanks in advance for your input!

God never calls the Sabbath for the Jews. God tells us the Sabbath is HIS holy day. God keeps the Sabbath holy for Him:
Exodus 20:10 but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord your God.
Isaiah 58:13 “If you turn away your foot from the Sabbath,
From doing your pleasure on My holy day, And call the Sabbath a delight,
The holy day of the Lord honorable, And shall honor Him, not doing your own ways, Nor finding your own pleasure, Nor speaking your own words,

Why would God want us to worship Him on a different day than the day that God set aside "sanctified" "blessed" and "made holy" for Him and for us:

Exodus 20:8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy.

Jesus told us the Sabbath was made for man (does not say Jews) Mark 2:27 and man was created on the sixth day, before any Jews Genesis 1:26 and the next day was God's holy Sabbath day Genesis 2:1-3. That first Sabbath must have been glorious!

The verses you indicate Col 2:16 is not referring to the seventh day Sabbath if you back up to Col 2:14 it says this: 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

God's Sabbath day is "holy" and "blessed" a day of solemn rest so that is certainly not contrary to us. The Sabbath is also a commandment of God Exodus 34:28 not an ordinance and you read Col 2:16 it is speaking about food and drink and there is nothing in the Sabbath commandment that is about food or drink. Did you know there are two Sabbaths in the bible? The seventh day Sabbath that is a commandment of God that is a part of covenant of Ten, not nine that is kept in the Most Holy of God's Temple and the annual sabbath(s) feast days that is an ordinance that is about food and drink offerings to that ended- see Hebrews 10 with Christ as our sacrifice. If you go up to Col 2:17 it refers to as being a shadow of things to come. The weekly seventh day Sabbath is not a shadow of anything it points to creation Genesis 2:1-3 "Remember" the Sabbath is a memorial of Creation why would we want to forget that?

We also know the Sabbath has not ended because Jesus references it after He has descended back to heaven that it would still be kept Matthew 24:20 and is still a commandment after Jesus died Luke 23:56 and it continues to be the Lord's chosen day of worship for eternity Isaiah 66:23.

God bless
 
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ralliann

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This brief article will help answer your question.

Seven Laws of Noah - Wikipedia
Seeing what would be taught/ and still is taught concerning the world to come in synagogue in connection to Gentiles, we see basic prohibitions at the Jerusalem council to Gentiles.
Ac 15:20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
Ac 15:29 That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well.
As for gentiles keeping "jewish" law, are to observe no such thing
Ac 21:25 As touching the Gentiles which believe, we have written and concluded that they observe no such thing, save only that they keep themselves from things offered to idols, and from blood, and from strangled, and from fornication.
These are spoken as a direct result of what was is taught (from Moses) in the synagogues...

Acts 15:19 Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:
20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.

The teachings were from old times......As Gentiles did attend Synagogue, and many of the early Christians Jew and Gentile were from the preaching of Paul going to the synagogues...

Acts 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
 
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eleos1954

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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath (i.e., ceasing from work on the seventh day of the week, Saturday) was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews. While some things are commanded in the Old Testament for Israel (and thus are not binding on Christians today), such as circumcision, other commands are universal and apply at all times, such as the prohibition against murder and adultery. The following is a three-reason case for the position that the Sabbath is a Mosaic shadow. If my case is flawed, you're my friend to let me know.



The Old Testament itself

First off, the Sabbath is said to be connected with the covenant of the children of Israel. To my knowledge, the rest of humankind is never told to observe the Sabbath (excluding proselytes to Judaism, of course). For example, Exodus 31:16–17 says specifically, "Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant" (NKJV, emphasis mine). We’re not under the old, Mosaic covenant, since it was made obsolete by the new, universal covenant (Hebrews 8:8-13).


Similarly, Nehemiah 9:5-15 lists a brief chronology of God's people from creation to Moses, emphasizing all that God had done, and puts the Sabbath as being “made known” during the time of Moses—not the time of creation (Nehemiah 9:6) or even the time of Abraham (Nehemiah 9:7-8), but the time of Moses (Nehemiah 9:14). (Granted, God blesses the seventh day in Genesis 2:2‐3, but it doesn’t say man did so. We never see man told to keep the Sabbath until Moses. More on this later.)


Ezekiel 20:10-12 mentions both points made in Exodus and Nehemiah: This passage mentions how God brought Israel out of Egypt (v. 10), how He gave them statues and judgements (v. 11), and how He gave them His Sabbaths "to be a sign between them and Me" (v. 12, NKJV).


So in Exodus, the Sabbath is specifically tied to the Mosaic covenant with Israel. In Nehemiah, God isn't said to have made the Sabbath known until the time of Moses. In Ezekiel's account, both are said to be the case, that God 1) "gave" the Sabbath during the time of Moses and 2) did so to be a sign between Israel and God.


Universal laws, such as the prohibition of murder, are condemned everywhere—before Moses (Genesis 9:6), during Moses (Exodus 20:13), and after Moses (Revelation 21:8). If the Sabbath were a universal law, why are Jews always the ones told to keep it, never the Gentiles (other than proselytes to Judaism, of course), and why is Israel singled out as the people it's for?



Jesus's treatment of the Sabbath

While Jesus was on earth, did He treat the Sabbath as a universal law like the universal laws against murder or adultery, or did He see it more in line with the Mosaic commandments like circumcision and eating only meats considered clean?


Regarding universal laws such as murder or adultery, we see that Jesus was stricter than the Pharisees in passages such as Matthew 5:17-30. However, He was more lenient than the Pharisees on the Sabbath. When the Pharisees confronted Him about it, Jesus referenced certain Mosaic laws that overrode the practice of the Sabbath on special occasions. He referenced work the priests did in the temple (Matthew 12:5) and circumcision (John 1:21-24), among other things.


Could Mosaic laws ever supersede a universal law such as murder or adultery? I don’t think so. Yet, Mosaic laws did supersede the Sabbath. Thus, Jesus' defense for doing the things He and His disciples did on the Sabbath assumes the Sabbath is a Mosaic law, not a universal law that could never be superseded.



The Sabbath as a shadow

Finally, Hebrews 4:1-11 tells us to make sure we don't fall short of God's rest (Hebrews 4:1). However, those who heard God's good news before us were rejected, God swearing they would not enter His rest (Hebrews 4:2-3). However, God's work was finished from the foundation of the world when He rested on the seventh day of creation, but He says those who rejected Him won't enter His rest (Hebrews 4:3-5).


There has to be some people who enter God's rest, though, so there’s another day, "Today," referenced back in Psalm 95:7-8 (Hebrews 4:6-7). This proves that God's rest isn't merely the physical Promised Land, since Psalm 95 was written after they entered the Promised Land, so it's speaking of another day (Hebrews 4:8). Therefore, there remains a Sabbath rest for God's people (Hebrews 4:9). It obviously isn't the literal Sabbath, but rather a rest we must be diligent to enter (Hebrews 4:10-12).


It seems that Sabbatarians have a point in saying the Sabbath commanded for Israel was connected with Genesis 2:2-3, in which God rested on the seventh day (Exodus 20:11; Exodus 31:16‐17). However, isn't Hebrews 4 saying that our Sabbath rest is found in the rest that "remains" for God's people, the one we must be diligent to “enter,” rather than in keeping the literal Sabbath? Doesn't the passage suggest that the Mosaic Sabbath is a shadow of something bigger, of the rest that we're obtaining as Christians? If so, then it seems Paul would tell us not to be judged about the old Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16–17 (NKJV, emphasis mine):


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.


Mosaic practices are shadows, and it seems the Sabbath qualifies as such.



Conclusion

As argued, the Sabbath 1) was given specifically as part of a covenant with Israel, not other nations; 2) was treated as a Mosaic covenant (not a universal law) by Jesus; and 3) is spoken of as being a shadow of something greater.


Do these arguments hold up? They each are independent arguments, so if any of them stand, then the Sabbath is not binding on Christians today. Conversely, if the Sabbath is binding, then all three arguments would have to be false, from what I can tell.


I'm open to hearing the other side, as that's the best way to "Test all things" in order to see if my train of thought qualifies as "what is good" (1 Thess. 5:21, NKJV). I certainly wouldn't want to think something isn't binding if, in reality, it is. Thanks in advance for your input!

so ... of the commandments (the 10) .... are all "mosaic law" ... and so we don't need to keep any of them?

we are to follow in the steps of Christ and He kept the 7th day Sabbath.

1 Peter 2:21

For to this you have been called, because Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example, so that you might follow in his steps.

As stated before .... commandments are kept out of love and for no other reasons .... if so then they are works ... so if the Sabbath and all of His commandments are not a delight ... then one's attempt to keep them are in vain.

Jesus demonstrated by His entire life the Sabbath was to be kept .... else He would not have kept it.

and please don't give the "Jesus was a Jew argument" as some do ... Jesus IS God .... who knows more about God than God Himself?

Follow the lamb wherever He goes.
 
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pasifika

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so ... of the commandments (the 10) .... are all "mosaic law" ... and so we don't need to keep any of them?

we are to follow in the steps of Christ and He kept the 7th day Sabbath.

1 Peter 2:21

For to this you have been called, because Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example, so that you might follow in his steps.

As stated before .... commandments are kept out of love and for no other reasons .... if so then they are works ... so if the Sabbath and all of His commandments are not a delight ... then one's attempt to keep them are in vain.

Jesus demonstrated by His entire life the Sabbath was to be kept .... else He would not have kept it.

and please don't give the "Jesus was a Jew argument" as some do ... Jesus IS God .... who knows more about God than God Himself?

Follow the lamb wherever He goes.
Not the "letter" of the law which means don't follow it because it was written in the Law..but follow as your "conscience" tells you to...as it says "if anyone knows the good they ought to do and don't do it that is sin"...so if I gossip, or mocking someone etc is Not a good thing to do because I know that if someone does that to me I feel unhappy etc...so this not written in the Law but is a sin, because you act unjust to your brother or sister..so is much deeper then those who follow the "letter" as a way to live right with God...the main issue is the state of our "heart" which can either bring forth good or bad fruit...
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Not the "letter" of the law which means don't follow it because it was written in the Law..but follow as your "conscience" tells you to...as it says "if anyone knows the good they ought to do and don't do it that is sin"...so if I gossip, or mocking someone etc is Not a good thing to do because I know that if someone does that to me I feel unhappy etc...so this not written in the Law but is a sin, because you act unjust to your brother or sister..so is much deeper then those who follow the "letter" as a way to live right with God...the main issue is the state of our "heart" which can either bring forth good or bad fruit...
It is impossible to keep the Spirit of the law by breaking the letter. Jesus came to magnify God's holy law and gave examples of this- Matthew 5:21-30 and it does not mean we are free to "murder" as long as we don't have hate in our hearts. Jesus told us that we need to keep the least of the commandments Matthew 5:19 so not keeping the one commandment that God told us to "Remember" and used the word "holy" is not a commandment we are free to ignore if wanting to keep in the Spirit.

God bless.
 
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guevaraj

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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath (i.e., ceasing from work on the seventh day of the week, Saturday) was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews.
Brother, the Sabbath is a universal law because God established the Sabbath before sin entered our world as expressed in Hebrews 3 and 4. Jesus died so we can do the good things He planned for us "long ago", before sin entered the human family.

For we are God’s masterpiece. He has created us anew in Christ Jesus, so we can do the good things he planned for us long ago. (Ephesians 2:10 NLT)​

The purpose of creating us anew is given in the previous verse: so that we can do the good things He planned for us "long ago". Long ago, God planned for us the seventh day of creation, before sin entered the human family, to remember His "holy" day. We will remember "the Lord's day" as God told us beforehand in Hebrews 3 and 4!

God’s promise of entering his rest still stands, so we ought to tremble with fear that some of you might fail to experience it. For this good news—that God has prepared this rest—has been announced to us just as it was to them. But it did them no good because they didn’t share the faith of those who listened to God. For only we who believe can enter his rest. As for the others, God said, “In my anger I took an oath: ‘They will never enter my place of rest,’” even though this rest has been ready since he made the world. We know it is ready because of the place in the Scriptures where it mentions the seventh day: “On the seventh day God rested from all his work.” But in the other passage God said, “They will never enter my place of rest.” (Hebrews 4:1-5 NLT)​

United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge
 
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pasifika

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It is impossible to keep the Spirit of the law by breaking the letter. Jesus came to magnify God's holy law and gave examples of this- Matthew 5:21-30 and it does not mean we are free to "murder" as long as we don't have hate in our hearts. Jesus told us that we need to keep the least of the commandments Matthew 5:19 so not keeping the one commandment that God told us to "Remember" and used the word "holy" is not a commandment we are free to ignore if wanting to keep in the Spirit.

God bless.
Hello SB, you can say, it is impossible to keep the "letter of the law" but we can keep the Law through the "law of the Spirit"...

The law states if you fail to keep one commandment you fail to keep all the others...

So, since the entire law can sum up in this ONE commandment "Love your neighbor as yourself" then this where we must focus on...

So if we fulfill this one commandment...Then we fulfill all other commandments including the 7th day commandment...
 
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klutedavid

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Hello everyone! I've been doing some study on whether the Sabbath (i.e., ceasing from work on the seventh day of the week, Saturday) was a universal law for all of mankind or a Mosaic commandment for the Jews. While some things are commanded in the Old Testament for Israel (and thus are not binding on Christians today), such as circumcision, other commands are universal and apply at all times, such as the prohibition against murder and adultery. The following is a three-reason case for the position that the Sabbath is a Mosaic shadow. If my case is flawed, you're my friend to let me know.



The Old Testament itself

First off, the Sabbath is said to be connected with the covenant of the children of Israel. To my knowledge, the rest of humankind is never told to observe the Sabbath (excluding proselytes to Judaism, of course). For example, Exodus 31:16–17 says specifically, "Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant" (NKJV, emphasis mine). We’re not under the old, Mosaic covenant, since it was made obsolete by the new, universal covenant (Hebrews 8:8-13).


Similarly, Nehemiah 9:5-15 lists a brief chronology of God's people from creation to Moses, emphasizing all that God had done, and puts the Sabbath as being “made known” during the time of Moses—not the time of creation (Nehemiah 9:6) or even the time of Abraham (Nehemiah 9:7-8), but the time of Moses (Nehemiah 9:14). (Granted, God blesses the seventh day in Genesis 2:2‐3, but it doesn’t say man did so. We never see man told to keep the Sabbath until Moses. More on this later.)


Ezekiel 20:10-12 mentions both points made in Exodus and Nehemiah: This passage mentions how God brought Israel out of Egypt (v. 10), how He gave them statues and judgements (v. 11), and how He gave them His Sabbaths "to be a sign between them and Me" (v. 12, NKJV).


So in Exodus, the Sabbath is specifically tied to the Mosaic covenant with Israel. In Nehemiah, God isn't said to have made the Sabbath known until the time of Moses. In Ezekiel's account, both are said to be the case, that God 1) "gave" the Sabbath during the time of Moses and 2) did so to be a sign between Israel and God.


Universal laws, such as the prohibition of murder, are condemned everywhere—before Moses (Genesis 9:6), during Moses (Exodus 20:13), and after Moses (Revelation 21:8). If the Sabbath were a universal law, why are Jews always the ones told to keep it, never the Gentiles (other than proselytes to Judaism, of course), and why is Israel singled out as the people it's for?



Jesus's treatment of the Sabbath

While Jesus was on earth, did He treat the Sabbath as a universal law like the universal laws against murder or adultery, or did He see it more in line with the Mosaic commandments like circumcision and eating only meats considered clean?


Regarding universal laws such as murder or adultery, we see that Jesus was stricter than the Pharisees in passages such as Matthew 5:17-30. However, He was more lenient than the Pharisees on the Sabbath. When the Pharisees confronted Him about it, Jesus referenced certain Mosaic laws that overrode the practice of the Sabbath on special occasions. He referenced work the priests did in the temple (Matthew 12:5) and circumcision (John 1:21-24), among other things.


Could Mosaic laws ever supersede a universal law such as murder or adultery? I don’t think so. Yet, Mosaic laws did supersede the Sabbath. Thus, Jesus' defense for doing the things He and His disciples did on the Sabbath assumes the Sabbath is a Mosaic law, not a universal law that could never be superseded.



The Sabbath as a shadow

Finally, Hebrews 4:1-11 tells us to make sure we don't fall short of God's rest (Hebrews 4:1). However, those who heard God's good news before us were rejected, God swearing they would not enter His rest (Hebrews 4:2-3). However, God's work was finished from the foundation of the world when He rested on the seventh day of creation, but He says those who rejected Him won't enter His rest (Hebrews 4:3-5).


There has to be some people who enter God's rest, though, so there’s another day, "Today," referenced back in Psalm 95:7-8 (Hebrews 4:6-7). This proves that God's rest isn't merely the physical Promised Land, since Psalm 95 was written after they entered the Promised Land, so it's speaking of another day (Hebrews 4:8). Therefore, there remains a Sabbath rest for God's people (Hebrews 4:9). It obviously isn't the literal Sabbath, but rather a rest we must be diligent to enter (Hebrews 4:10-12).


It seems that Sabbatarians have a point in saying the Sabbath commanded for Israel was connected with Genesis 2:2-3, in which God rested on the seventh day (Exodus 20:11; Exodus 31:16‐17). However, isn't Hebrews 4 saying that our Sabbath rest is found in the rest that "remains" for God's people, the one we must be diligent to “enter,” rather than in keeping the literal Sabbath? Doesn't the passage suggest that the Mosaic Sabbath is a shadow of something bigger, of the rest that we're obtaining as Christians? If so, then it seems Paul would tell us not to be judged about the old Sabbath days in Colossians 2:16–17 (NKJV, emphasis mine):


So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.


Mosaic practices are shadows, and it seems the Sabbath qualifies as such.



Conclusion

As argued, the Sabbath 1) was given specifically as part of a covenant with Israel, not other nations; 2) was treated as a Mosaic covenant (not a universal law) by Jesus; and 3) is spoken of as being a shadow of something greater.


Do these arguments hold up? They each are independent arguments, so if any of them stand, then the Sabbath is not binding on Christians today. Conversely, if the Sabbath is binding, then all three arguments would have to be false, from what I can tell.


I'm open to hearing the other side, as that's the best way to "Test all things" in order to see if my train of thought qualifies as "what is good" (1 Thess. 5:21, NKJV). I certainly wouldn't want to think something isn't binding if, in reality, it is. Thanks in advance for your input!
I do not believe there should be any debate regarding whether the Gentile nations, are required to obey a Sabbath day.

The following verses taken from Acts 15 below is conclusive in deciding, if the law applies to the Gentile nations.

Acts 15:5-10
But some of the sect of the Pharisees who had believed stood up, saying, “It is necessary to circumcise them and to direct them to keep the Law of Moses. ”The apostles and the elders came together to look into this matter. After there had been much debate, Peter stood up and said to them, “Brothers, you know that in the early days God made a choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles would hear the word of the gospel and believe. And God, who knows the heart, testified to them giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He also did to us; and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith. Since this is the case, why are you putting God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our forefathers nor we have been able to bear?

Peter explains how God deals with the Gentile nations as shown below.

"And God, who knows the heart, testified to them giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He also did to us; and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith."

The Gentiles according to Peter did not have the law and no distinction was made by God, between the Gentiles and the Jews. The law was discarded by God as a qualification for faith.

Then Peter drives the nail into the coffin of the law in the verse shown below.

"Since this is the case, why are you putting God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our forefathers nor we have been able to bear?"

The "yoke" Peter mentions above is "to circumcise them and to direct them to keep the Law of Moses".

Circumcision itself is not the yoke, the law of Moses is the yoke and that is beyond any question.
 
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ralliann

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It is impossible to keep the Spirit of the law by breaking the letter. Jesus came to magnify God's holy law and gave examples of this- Matthew 5:21-30 and it does not mean we are free to "murder" as long as we don't have hate in our hearts. Jesus told us that we need to keep the least of the commandments Matthew 5:19 so not keeping the one commandment that God told us to "Remember" and used the word "holy" is not a commandment we are free to ignore if wanting to keep in the Spirit.

God bless.
The portion of law for the nations is Noachide law. That was settled at the Apostolic council in Jerusalem.
Cornelious was a righteous Noachide, As Peter a Jew. By grace through faith. No difference between them.

Ac 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.

Nothing needed to be added, other than faith in Christ to what was taught in the synagogues concerning obedience for Noachide righteousness for portion in the world to come
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Hello SB, you can say, it is impossible to keep the "letter of the law" but we can keep the Law through the "law of the Spirit"...

The law states if you fail to keep one commandment you fail to keep all the others...

So, since the entire law can sum up in this ONE commandment "Love your neighbor as yourself" then this where we must focus on...

So if we fulfill this one commandment...Then we fulfill all other commandments including the 7th day commandment...
No you misquoted me. I said it is impossible to keep the Spirit of the law by breaking the letter because the Spirit of the law is so much greater. If you are truly keeping the Spirit of the law, then you are automatically keeping the letter.

Yes, love sums up the commandments because you keep the commandments out of love. If you love Me, keep My commandments John 14:15 and we are given the Holy Spirit to keep these commandments John 15-18 not break them.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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The portion of law for the nations is Noachide law. That was settled at the Apostolic council in Jerusalem.
Cornelious was a righteous Noachide, As Peter a Jew. By grace through faith. No difference between them.












Ac 15:21 For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.

Yes and Jesus kept the Sabbath as our example going to the Temple on the Sabbath as it was His custom reading scripture Luke 4:16-22 as well as the disciples Acts 18:4. The Sabbath was made for man Mark 2:16, which means everyone.
 
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klutedavid

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The sabbath is intended to give people a day of rest beyond the normal daily necessary chores. Under the Old Covenant, it's a command not to do unnecessary work. Under the New Covenant, Christians are supposed to rest from doing their own works in order to be justified, and to rest in Christ.
That is a hole in one.

Of course, the Sabbath was a shadow law just like every other law in the Old Testament.

The entire old covenant was the shadow that so brilliantly described the approaching messiah, that is, Jesus.
 
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pasifika

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No you misquoted me. I said it is impossible to keep the Spirit of the law by breaking the letter because the Spirit of the law is so much greater. If you are truly keeping the Spirit of the law, then you are automatically keeping the letter.

Yes, love sums up the commandments because you keep the commandments out of love. If you love Me, keep My commandments John 14:15 and we are given the Holy Spirit to keep these commandments John 15-18 not break them.

Well, you will not break the letter of the law if love your neighbor as yourself...

Yes, if you keep the Spirit of the Law means you also keep the "letter" because they both about "LOVE"..

You will also going to keep the Sabbath day Holy..doesn't mean you only worship every 7th day But everyday day is Holy including 7th day because you found Rest everyday in Christ...

BUT you seems to focus on the "letter of the law" as a way of keeping the Law...that is a misunderstanding by you...Because the "letter" has nothing to change your "sinful" nature is just "revealed" it that you have a "sinful nature" that's all...But the "Spirit" changes us from "sinful" to "holiness"...
 
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ralliann

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Yes and Jesus kept the Sabbath as our example going to the Temple on the Sabbath as it was His custom reading scripture.
As acts says concerning what was taught of Moses regarding Gentiles. They kept the laws given to Noah, as taught there. We walk in the steps of faith as our father Abraham, as he walked
Paul never brought Gentiles into the temple! He commited no offence against the law concerning the temple, to defile it.
Ac 21:26 Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them.
Ac 21:27 And when the seven days were almost ended, the Jews which were of Asia, when they saw him in the temple, stirred up all the people, and laid hands on him,
Ac 21:28 Crying out, Men of Israel, help: This is the man, that teacheth all men every where against the people, and the law, and this place: and further brought Greeks also into the temple, and hath polluted this holy place.
Ac 21:29 (For they had seen before with him in the city Trophimus an Ephesian, whom they supposed that Paul had brought into the temple.)
Luke 4:16-22 as well as the disciples Acts 18:4. The Sabbath was made for man Mark 2:16, which means everyone.
Paul committed no such offense of temple law to pollute it.

Ac 24:6 Who also hath gone about to profane the temple: whom we took, and would have judged according to our law.

Ac 25:8 While he answered for himself, Neither against the law of the Jews, neither against the temple, nor yet against Caesar, have I offended any thing at all.
 
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Well, you will not break the letter of the law if love your neighbor as yourself...

You will also going to keep the Sabbath day Holy..

BUT you seems to focus on the "letter of the law" as a way of keeping the Law...that is a misunderstanding by you...Because the "letter" has nothing to change your "sinful" nature is just "revealed" it that you have a "sinful nature" that's all...But the "Spirit" changes us from "sinful" to "holiness"...
I would be careful telling me the reasons why I obey God when we don't know each other. I will tell you though, so you don't need to guess, I obey God out of love. When I sin, it separates me from God, it hurts God and why would I want to hurt or be separated from the Creator whom I love? I keep the Sabbath because God told us to "remember" and it is God's holy day that He also wants us to keep holy and it is a DELIGHT Isaiah 58:13, Exodus 20:8-11 I agree the Spirit changes us from being sinful to holiness and we can test this by making sure we are obeying. Isaiah 8:20 It's easy to start following another spirit without even realizing it. It talks a lot about this in the scriptures. Sin is not coming from God so when we sin, we are not in God's Spirit. Sin is defined as breaking the commandments of God. 1 John 3:4 and we break one of the commandments, we are breaking them all James 2:8-10 and God's commandments are eternal Matthew 5:19. We all have time to repent and turn from sin, but there will be a day coming soon, when it will be too late. God is good and it is not His will that we sin.
 
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pasifika

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I would be careful telling me the reasons why I obey God when we don't know each other. I will tell you though, so you don't need to guess, I obey God out of love. When I sin, it separates me from God, it hurts God and why would I want to hurt or be separated from the Creator whom I love? I keep the Sabbath because God told us to "remember" and it is God's holy day that He also wants us to keep holy and it is a DELIGHT Isaiah 58:13, Exodus 20:8-11 I agree the Spirit changes us from being sinful to holiness and we can test this by making sure we are obeying. Isaiah 8:20 It's easy to start following another spirit without even realizing it. It talks a lot about this in the scriptures. Sin is not coming from God so when we sin, we are not in God's Spirit. Sin is defined as breaking the commandments of God. 1 John 3:4 and we break one of the commandments, we are breaking them all James 2:8-10 and God's commandments are eternal Matthew 5:19. We all have time to repent and turn from sin, but there will be a day coming soon, when it will be too late. God is good and it is not His will that we sin.
If you claim that you obey God's law because you follow the "letter of the law" as a way of showing it...Then the Pharisees and Teachers of the Law does the same mistake...they want people to see them doing good and follow God because is "written" in the law... "they worship me with their mouth but their "hearts" is far from me"...

Claiming to keep the Law out of Love by following the "letter" is just "tainted", "corrupted" and mere "human love"...

God desire "Agape Love" and you and I don't have it! Only found in Christ...
 
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