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LoveGodsWord

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So you're telling us one of the many places in Scripture that does not command Gentile believers to keep Shabbos. We're looking for one that does command it
Not really dear friend as I was saying no such thing. As posted earlier Acts of the Apostles 15 was never over the question are God's 10 commandments still the standard of Christian living. It was over the question is circumcision a requirement for salvation for new gentile believers (Acts of the Apostles 15:1-2). Paul says sometime latter after the decision at Jerusalem in 1 Corinthians 7:9 to other gentile believers "Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing but the keeping of the commandments of God. Why do you need a command for Gods' people to keep the Sabbath when it was already given 4000 years earlier spoken and written by God with His own finger and everyone of them is repeated all through the new covenant scriptures (scripture support here linked)
It's in the same passage whwere the Gentile believers were told to keep the Sabbath. The Gentiles didn't have a Day of Worship, and knew nothing of the Sabbath. They weren't saved by the 10 commandments. They worshipped on the Lord's Day, the day our Lord was resurrected.
Strawman? Who says we are saved by keeping Gods 10 commandments? According to the scriptures we are saved by grace through faith and not of ourselves it is a gift of God and not of works lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. As posted earlier, obedience to God's words are not how we are saved it is the FRUIT of genuine faith of one that is already been given Gods promise of salvation and the fruit of God's work in us *Philippians 2:13 as we believe and follow his word *John 10:26-27. If our faith has no fruit it is dead *James 2:18-20; 26 and our tree will be cast down and thrown into the fire *Matthew 3:10; 7:19-20; 13:49-50; Hebrews 10:26-27. Therefore we do not abolish God's law through faith like some people teach but God's law is established in the heart by faith that works by love *Romans 3:31; 1 John 5:3-4; Romans 13:8-10. According to the scriptures, sin (breaking God' commandments and not believing and following God's Word) is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil *1 John 3:6-10; 1 John 2:3-4; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14. At the second coming Christs reward is with him *Revelation 22:12. Gentile believers are told to believe and follow God's Word and this makes them grafted in to God's ISRAEL *Romans 11:13-27 according to the promises of God (Scripture support linked). Gentile believers were to continue learning the Word of God every Sabbath *Acts of the Apostles 15:21.
Sorry the attempt to dodge the question isn't working. Where does Scripture command Gentile believers to keep Shabbos? Your quesion is moot if Gentiles were never told to keep the Sabbath in the first place.
Where's the Scripture, mate? I don't care about the traditions of your group, is it in the Bible or not?
I am sorry I do not believe you as shown why from the scriptures posted above.
Hebrews 4:9 THEREFORE IT REMAINS FOR THE PEOPLE OF GOD TO KEEP THE SABBATH.

................

Now back to the OP. Where is the scripture that says "the Lords day" is Sunday? Do you have any scripture to support your teaching and tradition here? Let's talk more when you have scripture to share. Until then we will have to agree to disagree but thanks for sharing your view.

Take Care. :)
 
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swordsman1

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In the Koine Greek of the biblical texts and as posted earlier the naming of the days in the Hebrew culture (unlike the the Romans and the Greeks) used Gods' Word for the naming of the days. For example; if "day" is not in the Greek text the reference point used by the translators in adding the English word day is to "week". This is because the original Greek if "day" is omitted it is normally written in the Greek as "first of the week" meaning first day of the week. The Greek word for reference here to add in the word "day" in the English is the Greek Word "week" therefore the first of the week, is day 1 or the first day of the week which are all are all equivalent readings.

The Greek word for "week" therefore is the reference point and context to the numbering of the days of the "week" that the translators add in the English word "day" into our English translations which is the equivalent of the original Greek text and the reference point for adding "day" into our translations (e.g. John 20:19 see Greek context to week here). Now note; Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" with ἡμέρᾳ (day) not being a supplied word of the translators but the original Greek text that is not supplied.
With what was posted in the previous section to you with the need to have a reference point for a translator to add in the word day and as been shown through the scriptures that normally if the Greek word day is not used there is normally a reference point to "week". There is no reference point in the didache for the translators to add the word day in a translation. This is where you run into problems but let me explain why. In the translation of the didache in the Greek there is no reference points to the Greek words for day or week used in the entire document as shown earlier by @HIM in his link to the original Greek text shown in the original Greek.

Didache 14:1a in the original Greek reads....
Κατὰ κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου συναχθέντες κλάσατε ἄρτον καὶ εὐχαριστήσατε, προεξομολογησάμενοι τὰ παραπτώματα ὑμῶν, ὅπως καθαρὰ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν ᾐ.

Didache 14:1a
in the original Greek to English....
According to 'the Lord's things' of Lord: gather break bread and give thanks, confessing out

Mistranslated to English....

Didache
14:1a as mistranslated to the English with no reference point for translation reads....
"But every Lord's [day] gather yourselves together, and break bread, and give thanksgiving";[14] another translation begins, "On the Lord's own day".

The first clause in Greek, "κατά κυριακήν δέ κυρίου", literally means "On the Lord's of the Lord", a unique and unexplained double possessive, and translators supply the elided noun, e.g., "day" (ἡμέρα hemera), "commandment" (from the immediately prior verse 13:7), or "doctrine". This is one of two early extrabiblical Christian uses of "κυριακήν" where it does not clearly refer to Sunday because textual readings have given rise to questions of proper translation. According to the scriptures breaking bread of bread is also not a reference point because this can be done daily or weekly at any time of the week *Acts of the Apostles 2:42, 20:7. (Ambiguous references)

Are you a Greek scholar? No? Then who are you to say that all the Koine experts who have translated the Didache have got it wrong? Every scholar who has translated the Didache agrees it should be translated "Lord's day". That includes....

Roberts & Donaldson "But every Lord's day..."

J.B. Lightfoot " And on the Lord's own day...."

Charles H. Hoole "But on the Lord's day...."

Kirsopp Lake "On the Lord's Day...."

Tony Jones "On the Lord’s day, "

Rick Brannan "And coming together on the Lord's day...."

M.B. Riddle "But every Lord's day...."

Hitchcock and Brown "But on the Lord's day...."

Herbert W. Armstrong "Now according to the Lord's day...."

So who I should trust - the unanimous consensus of Koine Greek experts or you? That's a tough one.


I respectfully disagree as this claim is impossible to prove as there was no date or author attached to the original didache manuscript.

There is a consensus for a mid to late first-century dating (50-70 CE),
Didache

dated by modern scholars to the first or (less commonly) second century.
Didache - Wikipedia

Several factors point to an early date of mid- to late-first-century AD. The influence of Jewish customs (e.g., fasting and prayer three times a day), the probable use of the Babylonian Talmud (especially in Didache chapter 2), the Old Testament quotations and the view of prophets as replacements for the high priest may point to an early period of the church when it was still closely related to Judaism.
Other evidence suggesting an early date includes the simplicity of the rituals of baptism and the Eucharist, the primitive nature of church leadership and organization, and the expectation of an immanent second coming of Christ. There is also a notable absence of any mention of pagan persecution or heresy, which were central features of most second-century Christian writings.
Didache - ReligionFacts


Some scholars even date it to the 3rd and 4th Century.

It can't be that late because the document was referred to by the church father Dionysius of Corinth in AD170.

Keeping in mind here this is a document that only suddenly appeared inside a Catholic monastery in Turkey in 1873 which in the original Greek has no reference to "the Lords day" which is also not scripture that proves that the "Lords day" is Sunday or the first day of the week but simply a questionable document from a questionable source with questionable dating with a questionable translation a demonstrated above.

So? That is the date the first complete copy was found, with that manuscript itself dating back to the 11th century. The earliest complete manuscript of Revelation was only found in 1844 but you don't doubt the authenticity of that do you? Papyrii and parchment have a habit of disintegrating you know. Other existing fragmentary copies of the Didache date back the 4th century.

Despite your attempts at sowing doubt, the vast consensus of scholars overwhelmingly accept the authenticity and earliness of the Didache, and regard it as a very important Christian document.
 
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Jipsah

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you can't separate the body of Christ like your trying to do, also give me that verse that says we're not to keep God's commandments, oh yeah it's not there.]
Nice rhetorical flourish there, but still no Scripture showing where the Gentile converts were told to Sabbath. And you're right - it's not there. Just as Gentile converts weren't required to keep kosher, they wree also not required to keep the Sabbath.

But fair play here, if you come up with any Scripture that does require it I'll certainly apologize for doubting you.
 
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Hezekiah81

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Nice rhetorical flourish there, but still no Scripture showing where the Gentile converts were told to Sabbath. And you're right - it's not there. Just as Gentile converts weren't required to keep kosher, they wree also not required to keep the Sabbath.

But fair play here, if you come up with any Scripture that does require it I'll certainly apologize for doubting you.
I can't convince you to keep God's commandments like has always been expected by him nothing has changed, Hebrews is clear there is still a day of rest and it's not man fabricated sunday. Also there is a saying where I'm from if your not a lawkeeper your a lawbreaker.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Are you a Greek scholar? No? Then who are you to say that all the Koine experts who have translated the Didache have got it wrong? Every scholar who has translated the Didache agrees it should be translated "Lord's day". That includes....

Roberts & Donaldson "But every Lord's day..."

J.B. Lightfoot " And on the Lord's own day...."

Charles H. Hoole "But on the Lord's day...."

Kirsopp Lake "On the Lord's Day...."

Tony Jones "On the Lord’s day, "

Rick Brannan "And coming together on the Lord's day...."

M.B. Riddle "But every Lord's day...."

Hitchcock and Brown "But on the Lord's day...."

Herbert W. Armstrong "Now according to the Lord's day...."

So who I should trust - the unanimous consensus of Koine Greek experts or you? That's a tough one.




There is a consensus for a mid to late first-century dating (50-70 CE),
Didache

dated by modern scholars to the first or (less commonly) second century.
Didache - Wikipedia

Several factors point to an early date of mid- to late-first-century AD. The influence of Jewish customs (e.g., fasting and prayer three times a day), the probable use of the Babylonian Talmud (especially in Didache chapter 2), the Old Testament quotations and the view of prophets as replacements for the high priest may point to an early period of the church when it was still closely related to Judaism.
Other evidence suggesting an early date includes the simplicity of the rituals of baptism and the Eucharist, the primitive nature of church leadership and organization, and the expectation of an immanent second coming of Christ. There is also a notable absence of any mention of pagan persecution or heresy, which were central features of most second-century Christian writings.
Didache - ReligionFacts




It can't be that late because the document was referred to by the church father Dionysius of Corinth in AD170.



So? That is the date the first complete copy was found, with that manuscript itself dating back to the 11th century. The earliest complete manuscript of Revelation was only found in 1844 but you don't doubt the authenticity of that do you? Papyrii and parchment have a habit of disintegrating you know. Other existing fragmentary copies of the Didache date back the 4th century.

Despite your attempts at sowing doubt, the vast consensus of scholars overwhelmingly accept the authenticity and earliness of the Didache, and regard it as a very important Christian document.
I think we will have to agree to disagree on this one dear friend. How does this post here address anything in the post you are quoting from? - It doesn't.
 
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Bob S

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[Sure there's evidence.] (John 14:15) If you love me, keep my commandments.
Not quite so fast my brother. Unless I am reading your wrong, I presume you are referring to the old covenant commands. You may be SDA or of another group that is trying to tell everyone else we are wrong. What are "My commands"? I suggest you dig a might bit deeper and allow Jesus to tell us what His commands for us are.
Jn 15: 9 “As the Father has loved me, so have I loved you. Now remain in my love. 10 If you keep my commands, you will remain in my love, just as I have kept my Father’s commands and remain in his love. 11 I have told you this so that my joy may be in you and that your joy may be complete. 12 My command is this: Love each other as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one’s life for one’s friends.

And just for good measure John has some truth to add to help you with the real truth. 1Jn3: 19 This is how we know that we belong to the truth and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence: 20 If our hearts condemn us, we know that God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything. 21 Dear friends, if our hearts do not condemn us, we have confidence before God 22 and receive from him anything we ask, because we keep his commands and do what pleases him. 23 And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 The one who keeps God’s commands lives in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us.

Pretty simple isn't it. We don't have to worry about all the old covenant laws, which ones we have to keep and which ones we can cull. The fact is like I mentioned in my last post, gentiles were never under the laws that God gave to Israel. Why do you try to supersede what God's plan for Israel WAS? Why present something that is not the truth when you can read for yourself what is truth? If, in fact, I am wrong about your belief system I apologize, but it seems likely you post was in opposition to what I wrote. I believe if God wanted a TEN to be placed with "keep my commandments" He would have put one there. He had quite a few chances.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Are you a Greek scholar? No?
Then who are you to say that all the Koine experts who have translated the Didache have got it wrong? Every scholar who has translated the Didache agrees it should be translated "Lord's day".
No not at all. I know a little Greek (enough to ask questions and search out information) but far from being a scholar. I posted you some references showing that other scholars believe that the didache has been mistranslated in 14.1 and that there is also not date and author to these writings that mysteriously appear in the 1873 from a Catholic monastery to trace an accurate date of when it was written so all dates to the didache are only speculation at best by anyone. You were shown also that in the biblical Koine Greek that as posted earlier the naming of the days in the Hebrew culture (unlike the the Romans and the Greeks) used Gods' Word for the naming of the days. For example; if "day" is not in the Greek text the reference point used by the translators in adding the English word day is to "week". This is because the original Greek if "day" is omitted it is normally written in the Greek as "first of the week" meaning first day of the week. The Greek word for reference here to add in the word "day" in the English is the Greek Word "week" therefore the first of the week, is day 1 or the first day of the week which are all are all equivalent readings. Therefore this is the reasoning for the translators adding in "day" when there is only a number all first because it is linked directly to the "week" which is the reference point to day (e.g. John 20:19 see Greek context to week here). Now note; Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" with ἡμέρᾳ (day) not being a supplied word of the translators but the original Greek text that is not supplied.

For a translator to add in a word that is not in the Greek they need to have a reference point to justify to addition. There is no reference point in the didache for the translators to add the word "day " in a translation. As posted earlier this is where you run into problems. In the translation of the didache in the Greek there is no reference points to the Greek words for day or week being used in the entire document as shown earlier by @HIM in his link to the original Greek text shown in the original Greek.

Here is the proof that the English translation has been mistranslated.

Didache 14:1a in the original Greek reads....
Κατὰ κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου συναχθέντες κλάσατε ἄρτον καὶ εὐχαριστήσατε, προεξομολογησάμενοι τὰ παραπτώματα ὑμῶν, ὅπως καθαρὰ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν ᾐ.

Didache 14:1a
in the original Greek to English....
According to 'the Lord's things' of Lord: gather break bread and give thanks, confessing out

Mistranslated to English....

Didache
14:1a as mistranslated to the English with no reference point for translation reads....
"But every Lord's [day] gather yourselves together, and break bread, and give thanksgiving".

The first clause in Greek, "κατά κυριακήν δέ κυρίου", literally means "On the Lord's of the Lord", a unique and unexplained double possessive, and translators supply the elided noun, e.g., "day" (ἡμέρα hemera), "commandment" (from the immediately prior verse 13:7), or "doctrine". This is one of two early extrabiblical Christian uses of "κυριακήν" where it does not clearly refer to Sunday because textual readings have given rise to questions of proper translation. According to the scriptures breaking bread of bread is also not a reference point because this can be done daily or weekly at any time of the week *Acts of the Apostles 2:42, 20:7. (Ambiguous references)

The above section as referenced is scholarly criticism of the Greek translation of section 14:1a shown above of the Didache inclusion of "the Lords day" when there is no reference point to day or week when the literal translation means on the "Lord's of the Lord".
That includes....
Roberts & Donaldson "But every Lord's day..."
J.B. Lightfoot " And on the Lord's own day...."
Charles H. Hoole "But on the Lord's day...."
Kirsopp Lake "On the Lord's Day...."
Tony Jones "On the Lord’s day, "
Rick Brannan "And coming together on the Lord's day...."
M.B. Riddle "But every Lord's day...."
Hitchcock and Brown "But on the Lord's day...."
Herbert W. Armstrong "Now according to the Lord's day...."
Ok you have posted a list of Catholic and Sunday keeping translators of the didache that have made the same application and mistake. How does this address anything in what is shown in the previous section that it is a mistranslation? - It doesn't
So who I should trust - the unanimous consensus of Koine Greek experts or you? That's a tough one.
You should not put your trust in either me or the scholars of the day. It was the Scribes and the Pharisees in the days of Jesus that were the scholars of the day that Jesus lived that crucified him and put him to death on the cross. Yet it was the very scriptures they claimed to be scholars over that testified of Him. While I am only another voice crying in the wilderness pointing to God's Word. We can only know the truth of Gods Word as we seek Jesus for a knowledge of the truth of His Word. This is why I often post only God's Word is true and we should believe and follow them. It is to the Word of God that we should be pointing people not teachings and traditions that are outside of the scriptures that lead people away from God and His Word. Anything outside of the scriptures are from sources outside of the bible and if they are not supported by scripture are not God's Word or from God. Now do you have any scripture from Gods' Word that show that Sunday is "the Lords day" found in the man-made teachings and traditions of the early Church? - Nope. Then who should we believe; God or man?
There is a consensus for a mid to late first-century dating (50-70 CE), Didache dated by modern scholars to the first or (less commonly) second century. Didache - Wikipedia
No. There is only estimates or best guesses to when the didache was written as there is no date or author written in the original didache manuscript. The didache has been the most widely dated writings from 100 AD to 400 AD. The variation is so wide because there is no way of dating it except through speculation. Your links only state a variation in consensus to different date ranges not evidence of a specific date.

"Although several scholars have assigned the Didache to the first century, and others have dated it to the third or even fourth century, most prefer a date in the first half of the second century. {3} The dates fixed upon by critics for the composition of the Didache fall between the years 50 and 160. The work was probably composed between 80 and 110. The basis for such a conclusion is the fact that the liturgy and hierarchy which the author describes, are quite primitive; there is no trace in the work of a creed or a canon of the Scriptures, and no allusion is made to pagan persecution or Gnosticism. On the other hand, the writer is acquainted with the gospels of St. Matthew and St. Luke and entertains an obvious mistrust towards wandering Christian teachers who visit the communities. This state of affairs is characteristic of the end of the first century. {4} Bryennios and Harnack assign, as the date, between 120 and 160; Hilgenfeld, 160 and 190; English and American scholars vary between A.D. 80 and 120. Until the priority to Barnabas is more positively established, the two may be regarded as of the same age, about 120, although a date slightly later is not impossible." (Religious Facts)

On top of this as shown earlier the application of section 14.1 to "the Lords day" is not in the original Greek as the Greek has no reference point to day. It is a mistranslation of "the Lords day". The only way therefore to prove that "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 being Sunday is to prove it with the biblical scriptures. No one in this thread has done this in support of this man-made teaching and tradition of the early Church.
Several factors point to an early date of mid- to late-first-century AD. The influence of Jewish customs (e.g., fasting and prayer three times a day), the probable use of the Babylonian Talmud (especially in Didache chapter 2), the Old Testament quotations and the view of prophets as replacements for the high priest may point to an early period of the church when it was still closely related to Judaism. Other evidence suggesting an early date includes the simplicity of the rituals of baptism and the Eucharist, the primitive nature of church leadership and organization, and the expectation of an immanent second coming of Christ. There is also a notable absence of any mention of pagan persecution or heresy, which were central features of most second-century Christian writings. Didache - ReligionFacts
It can't be that late because the document was referred to by the church father Dionysius of Corinth in AD170. So? That is the date the first complete copy was found, with that manuscript itself dating back to the 11th century. The earliest complete manuscript of Revelation was only found in 1844 but you don't doubt the authenticity of that do you? Papyrii and parchment have a habit of disintegrating you know. Other existing fragmentary copies of the Didache date back the 4th century. Despite your attempts at sowing doubt, the vast consensus of scholars overwhelmingly accept the authenticity and earliness of the Didache, and regard it as a very important Christian document.

It can't be that late because the document was referred to by the church father Dionysius of Corinth in AD170. So? That is the date the first complete copy was found, with that manuscript itself dating back to the 11th century. The earliest complete manuscript of Revelation was only found in 1844 but you don't doubt the authenticity of that do you? Papyrii and parchment have a habit of disintegrating you know. Other existing fragmentary copies of the Didache date back the 4th century. Despite your attempts at sowing doubt, the vast consensus of scholars overwhelmingly accept the authenticity and earliness of the Didache, and regard it as a very important Christian document.
What you have posted above here is not evidence of date but speculation of date from one source. There are many other scholars that have a different view on the date that the Didache was written yet these once again are all simply speculation because there is nothing to determine the actual date and time or authorship of when the didache was written and as has been shown earlier there is nothing in the Greek manuscripts that reference "the Lords day." So what have you shown here? Speculation in regards to the dating of the didache which scholars range from the 100 to 400 AD. There is no evidence that any of the Apostles had anything to do with this manuscript and there is nothing in the Greek that says "the Lords day" and nothing in the original Greek manuscript that discusses Sunday or the first day of the week.

Now the above is all and good and interesting discussion but there is nothing posted here in this thread that show from the scriptures that "the Lords day" written in Revelation 1:10 has any claim to being Sunday or the first day of the week. For this claim to be proven true scripture needs to be provided to show that "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday and nothing has been provided here or even in the original Greek writings of the didache so this brings us back to the question of the OP. Where is the scripture that proves that "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday? - There is none. So who should we believe and follow? God's Word or the teachings and traditions of men from outside of the bible? Well I know who I believe and follow according to Romans 3:4 and Acts of the Apostles 5:29. Let's talk more when you have scriptures proving that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Until then we will of course agree to disagree.

Take Care
 
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Hezekiah81

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Not quite so fast my brother. Unless I am reading your wrong, I presume you are referring to the old covenant commands. You may be SDA or of another group that is trying to tell everyone else we are wrong. What are "My commands"? I suggest you dig a might bit deeper and allow Jesus to tell us what His commands for us are.
Jn 15: 9 “As the Father has loved me, so have I loved you. Now remain in my love. 10 If you keep my commands, you will remain in my love, just as I have kept my Father’s commands and remain in his love. 11 I have told you this so that my joy may be in you and that your joy may be complete. 12 My command is this: Love each other as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one’s life for one’s friends.

And just for good measure John has some truth to add to help you with the real truth. 1Jn3: 19 This is how we know that we belong to the truth and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence: 20 If our hearts condemn us, we know that God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything. 21 Dear friends, if our hearts do not condemn us, we have confidence before God 22 and receive from him anything we ask, because we keep his commands and do what pleases him. 23 And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 The one who keeps God’s commands lives in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us.

Pretty simple isn't it. We don't have to worry about all the old covenant laws, which ones we have to keep and which ones we can cull. The fact is like I mentioned in my last post, gentiles were never under the laws that God gave to Israel. Why do you try to supersede what God's plan for Israel WAS? Why present something that is not the truth when you can read for yourself what is truth? If, in fact, I am wrong about your belief system I apologize, but it seems likely you post was in opposition to what I wrote. I believe if God wanted a TEN to be placed with "keep my commandments" He would have put one there. He had quite a few chances.
(The Acts 15:19-20) Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the gentiles are turned to God: 20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from the pollution of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood. [ That sounds alot like the law given to the children of Israel it's called baby steps for new believers, but let's not stop there let's listen to Jesus.] (Mark 10:17;19) 17 And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? 19 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honor thy father and mother. [ So when God gives a commandment don't assume it's just one or two unless he says this is my only commandment which he never said and verifies it in the verses I just shared with you.] (Romans 2:13) For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. [Here's my belief that God's law is spiritual and eternal like he says and you can't abolish it.]
 
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Bob S

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(The Acts 15:19-20) Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the gentiles are turned to God: 20 But that we write unto them, that they abstain from the pollution of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood. [ That sounds alot like the law given to the children of Israel it's called baby steps for new believers, but let's not stop there let's listen to Jesus.] (Mark 10:17;19) 17 And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? 19 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honor thy father and mother. [ So when God gives a commandment don't assume it's just one or two unless he says this is my only commandment which he never said and verifies it in the verses I just shared with you.] (Romans 2:13) For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
First of all, the Jews were still under the old covenant. The old covenant didn't end until Jesus ratified the new covenant with His own blood at Calvary fulfilling Jer 31. Secondly, laws dealing with morality are eternal and every one of the commands Jesus gave the "one" did deal with moral issues. He didn't mention any of the laws that dealt with ceremonies such as all the special day commands.

[Here's my belief that God's law is spiritual and eternal like he says and you can't abolish it.]
God's law as per the old covenant contained, so the Jews tell us, 613 commandments. Please don't tell us you believe all those laws are binding on Jews today. We know they were never binding on gentiles. Unless I am missing something gentiles were never under the old covenant law. Who was it that put them under the old covenant law? When did this event take place? Why did Paul tell us in Eph 2:15 the following: 14 For he himself is our peace, who has made the two groups one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations.

Then, of course, is one of my favorite verses I love to share with my old covenant followers: 7 Now if the ministry that brought death, which was engraved in letters on stone, came with glory, so that the Israelites could not look steadily at the face of Moses because of its glory, transitory though it was, 8 will not the ministry of the Spirit be even more glorious? 9 If the ministry that brought condemnation was glorious, how much more glorious is the ministry that brings righteousness! 10 For what was glorious has no glory now in comparison with the surpassing glory. 11 And if what was transitory came with glory, how much greater is the glory of that which lasts!

I have heard so many excuses by the old covenant believers, all denying that Paul was telling us that the ministry of death, the ten commandments, were transitory, meaning temporary. Paul said temporary, you say eternal. Do you then deny that Paul was Christ's ambassador giving us the truth that the old covenant was a temporary covenant. I believe you are out on a limb sawing that limb off.
 
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HIM

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So you're telling us one of the many places in Scripture that does not command Gentile believers to keep Shabbos. We're looking for one that does command it.

It's in the same passage whwere the Gentile believers were told to keep the Sabbath. The Gentiles didn't have a Day of Worship, and knew nothing of the Sabbath. They weren't saved by the 10 commandments. They worshipped on the Lord's Day, the day our Lord was resurrected.

Sorry the attempt to dodge the question isn't working. Where does Scripture command Gentile believers to keep Shabbos?

Your quesion is moot if Gentiles were never told to keep the Sabbath in the first place.

Where's the Scripture, mate? I don't care about the traditions of your group, is it in the Bible or not?
Heb 4:9, 10
Heb 4:9 So there remains a Sabbath-keeping for the people of God. (Footnote: a The Greek word is sabattismos, which means Sabbath-keeping.)
Heb 4:10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.

What rest did God do?

Please don't say God entered into a Spiritual rest He is always in that state.

Please don't say that it is a future rest or one we enter into partially because verse 10 says we also ceased from our own works as God did. Not will or kind of, but ceased.

So How and when did God cease from work?

Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.


Here in Matt 24:20-30 Jesus speaks of the Sabbath being kept up to His Second coming.
How do we know? By His use of the words For, And, Then, For, Behold, Wherefore, For, and For all connect what is about to be said to what was previously said.
Then in verse 29 Jesus says, Immediately after the tribulation of those days..."

What days?

The days Jesus just spoke about and said for us to pray that our flight not be in the winter nor on the Sabbath Day.


Matt 24:20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:
Matt 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
Matt 24:22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.
Matt 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not.
Matt 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
Matt 24:25 Behold, I have told you before.
Matt 24:26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.
Matt 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
Matt 24:28 For wheresoever the carcase is, there will the eagles be gathered together.
Matt 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
Matt 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
 
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HIM

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Quickly then, before our posts gets reported and deleted again for considering the historical evidence....

The word 'day' is often dropped when people referred to days of the week. So it is often referred to simply by the adjective "Lords" (κυριακὴν). Koine Greek translators are well aware of this, which is why all translations of the Didache render 14.1 as "the Lords day"...

Didache

This tradition has carried over into modern Greek, and the today's Greek word for Sunday is κυριακή. You can check this in Google Translate.

The same occurs with other days of the week. So for instance the Greek word for Wednesday is τετράδα (fourth), short for 'fourth day'.

τετράς, άδος, ἡ ‘the number four’ (Aristot., Philo), esp. ‘the fourth day’ (Hes. et al.; ins, pap, LXX of the fourth day of the month) the fourth day of the week, Wednesday τετράδα on Wednesday D 8:1 (on the acc. in answer to the question ‘when?’ s. B-D-F §161, 3; Rob. 470f).—DELG s.v. τέσσαρε.​

The Didache was written in AD60, well before John wrote Revelation, and together with other early Christian literature, shows us that the term "the Lords day" was in common use at the time to refer to Sunday, the day on which they met together.

This is why virtually all commentators of Rev 1:10, using the established rules of hermeneutics, agree that John was using a term that both he and his audience would understand as Sunday.
The Scholars have always had issues with biasedness.
If you want proof of that ask Jesus what He experienced while dealing with the "learned".


So you haven't actual looked at it? It is rather obvious when you do?
"According to the Lord's day" makes zero sense when one looks at the context, sentence structure and grammar.

Here is a link to an Interlinear The Interlinear Didache - Apocrypha - Psalm11918.org. You will find it quite helpful



XIV
1. Κατὰ (according) κυριακὴν (Lord's) δὲ (moreover) κυρίου (of Lord) συναχθέντες (gather together) κλάσατε (to break) ἄρτον (bread) καὶ (and) εὐχαριστήσατε (give thanks), προεξομολογησάμενοι (confessing) τὰ (the) παραπτώματα (offenses) ὑμῶν (of you), ὅπως καθαρὰ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν ᾐ. 2. πᾶς δὲ ἔχων τὴν ἀμφιβολίαν μετὰ τοῦ ἑταίρου αὐτοῦ μὴ συνελθέτω ὑμῖν, ἕως οὗ διαλλαγῶσιν, ἵνα μὴ κοινωθῇ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν. 3. αὕτη γάρ ἐστιν ἡ ῥηθεῖσα ὑπὸ κυρίου· Ἐν παντὶ τόπὼ καὶ χρόνῳ προσφέρειν μοι θυσίαν καθαράν. ὅτι βασιλεὺς μέγας εἰμί, λέγει κύριος, καὶ τὸ ὄνομά μου θαυμαστὸν ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσι.
 
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Jipsah

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Also there is a saying where I'm from if your not a lawkeeper your a lawbreaker.
As I see it, if you've ever lusted in your heart you're guilty of the whole Law. So welcome to the Lawbreaker's Club!
 
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swordsman1

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No not at all. I know a little Greek (enough to ask questions and search out information) but far from being a scholar. I posted you some references showing that other scholars believe that the didache has been mistranslated in 14.1 and that there is also not date and author to these writings that mysteriously appear in the 1873 from a Catholic monastery to trace an accurate date of when it was written so all dates to the didache are only speculation at best by anyone. You were shown also that in the biblical Koine Greek that as posted earlier the naming of the days in the Hebrew culture (unlike the the Romans and the Greeks) used Gods' Word for the naming of the days. For example; if "day" is not in the Greek text the reference point used by the translators in adding the English word day is to "week". This is because the original Greek if "day" is omitted it is normally written in the Greek as "first of the week" meaning first day of the week. The Greek word for reference here to add in the word "day" in the English is the Greek Word "week" therefore the first of the week, is day 1 or the first day of the week which are all are all equivalent readings. Therefore this is the reasoning for the translators adding in "day" when there is only a number all first because it is linked directly to the "week" which is the reference point to day (e.g. John 20:19 see Greek context to week here). Now note; Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" with ἡμέρᾳ (day) not being a supplied word of the translators but the original Greek text that is not supplied.

So you admit you are not a Greek scholar, but then proceed to regurgitate your exact same argument for mistranslation from your previous post. Why should we believe you (a self confessed amateur of the Greek) over the numerous Koine Greek experts who have translated Didache 1:14 as "the Lord's Day"?

Roberts & Donaldson "But every Lord's day..."
J.B. Lightfoot " And on the Lord's own day...."
Charles H. Hoole "But on the Lord's day...."
Kirsopp Lake "On the Lord's Day...."
Tony Jones "On the Lord’s day, "
Rick Brannan "And coming together on the Lord's day...."
M.B. Riddle "But every Lord's day...."
Hitchcock and Brown "But on the Lord's day...."
Herbert W. Armstrong "Now according to the Lord's day...."

The reason they do this, as I explained in my previous post, was because it was common in the Greek (and still is today) to drop the word 'day' when referring to days of the week.

So for instance in Magnesians 9:1 "no longer celebrate the Sabbath, but live for the Lord's day", the word 'day' is missing in the Greek, it is just "the Lord's" (κυριακὴν).

In Gospel of Peter 35 "Now during the night as the Lord’s Day dawned", the word 'day' is missing in the Greek, it is just "the Lord's" (κυριακὴν).

In Gospel of Peter 50 "Now, early in the morning on the Lord’s day, Mary Magdalene", the word 'day' is missing in the Greek, it is just "the Lord's" (κυριακὴν).

in Didache 8:1 "Rather, fast on the fourth day" the word 'day' is missing in the Greek, it just says "the fourth" - the common word for Wednesday (see BDAG in my previous post)

In Jer 52:12 (LXX) "On the tenth day of the fifth month " the word 'day' is missing in the Greek, it just says "the tenth".

Or maybe the translators of those documents have all got it wrong as well eh?


The above section as referenced is scholarly criticism of the Greek translation of section 14:1a shown above of the Didache inclusion of "the Lords day" when there is no reference point to day or week when the literal translation means on the "Lord's of the Lord".

No, Wikipedia is NOT is scholarly criticism. Anyone can edit a wikipedia page, including amateurs such as yourself. So that page on the subject of "the Lord's Day", a controversial topic for SDA's, has most likely been heavily edited by them. Show me proper peer-reviewed material by genuine scholars, such as seminary professors, that argues that Didache 14:1 has been mistranslated by all Koine Greek experts.


Ok you have posted a list of Catholic and Sunday keeping translators of the didache that have made the same application and mistake. How does this address anything in what is shown in the previous section that it is a mistranslation? - It doesn't

Oh, so you imply Greek translators who are not 7th day sabbatarians are not to be trusted. Why is it then that you quote extensively from the King James bible which was translated by Sunday keeping translators?

You should not put your trust in either me or the scholars of the day. It was the Scribes and the Pharisees in the days of Jesus that were the scholars of the day that Jesus lived that crucified him and put him to death on the cross. Yet it was the very scriptures they claimed to be scholars over that testified of Him. While I am only another voice crying in the wilderness pointing to God's Word. We can only know the truth of Gods Word as we seek Jesus for a knowledge of the truth of His Word. This is why I often post only God's Word is true and we should believe and follow them. It is to the Word of God that we should be pointing people not teachings and traditions that are outside of the scriptures that lead people away from God and His Word. Anything outside of the scriptures are from sources outside of the bible and if they are not supported by scripture are not God's Word or from God. Now do you have any scripture from Gods' Word that show that Sunday is "the Lords day" found in the man-made teachings and traditions of the early Church? - Nope. Then who should we believe; God or man?

And yet you yourself put your trust in Greek scholars every time you read your KJV Bible.


No. There is only estimates or best guesses to when the didache was written as there is no date or author written in the original didache manuscript. The didache has been the most widely dated writings from 100 AD to 400 AD. The variation is so wide because there is no way of dating it except through speculation. Your links only state a variation in consensus to different date ranges not evidence of a specific date.

So? Scholars do that for all Koine Greek documents that are undated, including the books in scripture. They make an educated assessment based on known data. Some are obviously wrong such as those that date the Didache after 170ad as they have overlooked the fact that it is referred to by the church fathers from that time. But dozens of scholars have studied the Didache and each has given us their own estimated date. From that we can draw a CONSENSUS, and that turns out to be mid to late 1st Century. Very few modern scholars date it later than the 1st century. That is before the time John wrote Revelation.

From looking at the Didache, along with other similar documents from the time, we can be sure that "the Lord's day" was a term used by Christians at this time to refer to Sunday, the day they met together. Which is why the ALL respected commentators of Rev 1:14, agree that John was referring to Sunday.


"Although several scholars have assigned the Didache to the first century, and others have dated it to the third or even fourth century, most prefer a date in the first half of the second century. {3} The dates fixed upon by critics for the composition of the Didache fall between the years 50 and 160. The work was probably composed between 80 and 110. The basis for such a conclusion is the fact that the liturgy and hierarchy which the author describes, are quite primitive; there is no trace in the work of a creed or a canon of the Scriptures, and no allusion is made to pagan persecution or Gnosticism. On the other hand, the writer is acquainted with the gospels of St. Matthew and St. Luke and entertains an obvious mistrust towards wandering Christian teachers who visit the communities. This state of affairs is characteristic of the end of the first century. {4} Bryennios and Harnack assign, as the date, between 120 and 160; Hilgenfeld, 160 and 190; English and American scholars vary between A.D. 80 and 120. Until the priority to Barnabas is more positively established, the two may be regarded as of the same age, about 120, although a date slightly later is not impossible." (Religious Facts)

Did you not read the source you just quoted?

Even that says "The work was probably composed between 80 and 110."

What you have posted above here is not evidence of date but speculation of date from one source. There are many other scholars that have a different view on the date that the Didache was written yet these once again are all simply speculation because there is nothing to determine the actual date and time or authorship of when the didache was written and as has been shown earlier there is nothing in the Greek manuscripts that reference "the Lords day." So what have you shown here? Speculation in regards to the dating of the didache which scholars range from the 100 to 400 AD. There is no evidence that any of the Apostles had anything to do with this manuscript and there is nothing in the Greek that says "the Lords day" and nothing in the original Greek manuscript that discusses Sunday or the first day of the week.


How can it be speculation, when the article gives REASONS for the dating the Didache at mid-late first century? A date which the majority consensus of scholars agree. Unless of course you can refute those reasons?


Now the above is all and good and interesting discussion but there is nothing posted here in this thread that show from the scriptures that "the Lords day" written in Revelation 1:10 has any claim to being Sunday or the first day of the week. For this claim to be proven true scripture needs to be provided to show that "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday and nothing has been provided here or even in the original Greek writings of the didache so this brings us back to the question of the OP. Where is the scripture that proves that "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday? - There is none. So who should we believe and follow? God's Word or the teachings and traditions of men from outside of the bible? Well I know who I believe and follow according to Romans 3:4 and Acts of the Apostles 5:29. You of course are free to believe anything you want to. That would be between you and God. Let's talk more when you have scriptures proving that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Until then we will of course agree to disagree.

Neither does scripture say that "the Lord's day" is the sabbath. So when interpreting scripture we use the established principles of hermeneutics which allows us to look at the historical context. And that shows us that the term was in widespread use at the time John wrote Revelation as a reference to Sunday, the day on which Christians met. So, rather than performing elaborate exegetical acrobatics as you did in the OP to come up with the idea that the Lord's day is the sabbath, we can be far more certain that John was using a term that both he and his audience would commonly understand as being Sunday.
 
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Hezekiah81

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First of all, the Jews were still under the old covenant. The old covenant didn't end until Jesus ratified the new covenant with His own blood at Calvary fulfilling Jer 31. Secondly, laws dealing with morality are eternal and every one of the commands Jesus gave the "one" did deal with moral issues. He didn't mention any of the laws that dealt with ceremonies such as all the special day commands.


God's law as per the old covenant contained, so the Jews tell us, 613 commandments. Please don't tell us you believe all those laws are binding on Jews today. We know they were never binding on gentiles. Unless I am missing something gentiles were never under the old covenant law. Who was it that put them under the old covenant law? When did this event take place? Why did Paul tell us in Eph 2:15 the following: 14 For he himself is our peace, who has made the two groups one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations.

Then, of course, is one of my favorite verses I love to share with my old covenant followers: 7 Now if the ministry that brought death, which was engraved in letters on stone, came with glory, so that the Israelites could not look steadily at the face of Moses because of its glory, transitory though it was, 8 will not the ministry of the Spirit be even more glorious? 9 If the ministry that brought condemnation was glorious, how much more glorious is the ministry that brings righteousness! 10 For what was glorious has no glory now in comparison with the surpassing glory. 11 And if what was transitory came with glory, how much greater is the glory of that which lasts!

I have heard so many excuses by the old covenant believers, all denying that Paul was telling us that the ministry of death, the ten commandments, were transitory, meaning temporary. Paul said temporary, you say eternal. Do you then deny that Paul was Christ's ambassador giving us the truth that the old covenant was a temporary covenant. I believe you are out on a limb sawing that limb off.
First off I never supported the man made regulations the children of Israel followed and why would I they're not from God. You stated gentiles were never given any law the children of Israel were given and that's false. Now if Jesus wanted to abolish the law don't you think he would have said so. Man doesn't decide what righteous living is God does.
 
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Hezekiah81

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As I see it, if you've ever lusted in your heart you're guilty of the whole Law. So welcome to the Lawbreaker's Club!
Those who walk in the Spirit don't walk after the flesh haven't you heard the good news!
 
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Bob S

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First off I never supported the man made regulations the children of Israel followed and why would I they're not from God.
Who indicated that you kept/keep any man-made laws? Nothing I have written indicate that I have accused you of such. I have asked you several pointed questions. Why do you ignore all of them.

You stated gentiles were never given any law the children of Israel were given and that's false.
Sorry friend, I wrote the following: "Unless I am missing something gentiles were never under the old covenant law. Who was it that put them under the old covenant law?"

I also wrote that laws dealing with moral issues are forever. Every human that ever lived and are living are subject to them. I would appreciate it if you wouldn't accuse me of saying something I didn't.

Now if Jesus wanted to abolish the law don't you think he would have said so.
He didn't come to abolish the law, He came to fulfill it. Fulfill means to "bring" to an end and He fulfilled that promise.

Man doesn't decide what righteous living is God does.
And if you had digested my post to you, you would know what scripture says Jesus requires from us to live a righteous life. Hint: it is not the ritual laws of the old covenant
 
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Hezekiah81

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Who indicated that you kept/keep any man-made laws? Nothing I have written indicate that I have accused you of such. I have asked you several pointed questions. Why do you ignore all of them.


Sorry friend, I wrote the following: "Unless I am missing something gentiles were never under the old covenant law. Who was it that put them under the old covenant law?"

I also wrote that laws dealing with moral issues are forever. Every human that ever lived and are living are subject to them. I would appreciate it if you wouldn't accuse me of saying something I didn't.


He didn't come to abolish the law, He came to fulfill it. Fulfill means to "bring" to an end and He fulfilled that promise.


And if you had digested my post to you, you would know what scripture says Jesus requires from us to live a righteous life. Hint: it is not the ritual laws of the old covenant
[Of course gentiles were never under the old covenant that's not my concern, my concern is that people post as is if there is no law if you look at what Jesus was teaching he was quoting straight from the Torah there was no new testament, his ways didn't contradict the Fathers. A synonym for fulfill is to complete which is exactly what Jesus did so the righteousness of the law could be fulfilled in us. Christ is the end of the law for righteousness not the end of the law period like mixed up religion would have you believe.] (Ezekiel 36:26-27) 26 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you a heart of flesh. 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them. [ Sounds alot like the new covenant doesn't it. What was wicked in the old testament is still wicked today and I will continue to walk in God's ways.]
 
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Hezekiah81

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Who indicated that you kept/keep any man-made laws? Nothing I have written indicate that I have accused you of such. I have asked you several pointed questions. Why do you ignore all of them.


Sorry friend, I wrote the following: "Unless I am missing something gentiles were never under the old covenant law. Who was it that put them under the old covenant law?"

I also wrote that laws dealing with moral issues are forever. Every human that ever lived and are living are subject to them. I would appreciate it if you wouldn't accuse me of saying something I didn't.


He didn't come to abolish the law, He came to fulfill it. Fulfill means to "bring" to an end and He fulfilled that promise.


And if you had digested my post to you, you would know what scripture says Jesus requires from us to live a righteous life. Hint: it is not the ritual laws of the old covenant
[Oh and just to be clear no gentile believers were under old covenant law after Christs resurrection we agree on that but there were some living under it before which you say they never were, and asked who put them under it, well God did.] (Exodus 12:48-49) 48 And when a stranger [that's a gentile] shall sojourn with you, and will keep the passover to the Lord, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof. 49 One law shall be to him that is home-born, and unto the stranger that sojourns among you.[ Wait there's more] (Numbers 15:14-16); (Isaiah 56:6-8) [Just some little fun facts for you enjoy.]
 
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Hezekiah81

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[Oh and just to be clear no gentile believers were under old covenant law after Christs resurrection we agree on that but there were some living under it before which you say they never were, and asked who put them under it, well God did.] (Exodus 12:48-49) 48 And when a stranger [that's a gentile] shall sojourn with you, and will keep the passover to the Lord, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof. 49 One law shall be to him that is home-born, and unto the stranger that sojourns among you.[ Wait there's more] (Numbers 15:14-16); (Isaiah 56:6-8) [Just some little fun facts for you enjoy.]
[Oh and by old covenant law I mean ritual law, not God's holy, just, and good commandments, and it's not just one or two. Imagine if we opened the bible and it just said love one another the end, I think everyone would be lost and doing what's right in their own eyes.]
 
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LoveGodsWord

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First off I never supported the man made regulations the children of Israel followed and why would I they're not from God. You stated gentiles were never given any law the children of Israel were given and that's false. Now if Jesus wanted to abolish the law don't you think he would have said so. Man doesn't decide what righteous living is God does.
Agreed well said! :oldthumbsup:
 
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