The word 'day' is often dropped when people referred to days of the week. So it is often referred to simply by the adjective "Lords" (κυριακὴν). Koine Greek translators are well aware of this, which is why all translations of the Didache render 14.1 as "the Lords day"... This tradition has carried over into modern Greek, and the today's Greek word for Sunday is κυριακή. You can check this in Google Translate. The same occurs with other days of the week. So for instance the Greek word for Wednesday is τετράδα (fourth), short for 'fourth day'.
τετράς, άδος, ἡ ‘the number four’ (Aristot., Philo), esp. ‘the fourth day’ (Hes. et al.; ins, pap, LXX of the fourth day of the month) the fourth day of the week, Wednesday τετράδα on Wednesday D 8:1 (on the acc. in answer to the question ‘when?’ s. B-D-F §161, 3; Rob. 470f).—DELG s.v. τέσσαρε
Well the purpose of this thread of course is to examine the teachings of the early Church that the Lords day from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday or the first day of the week from the
scriptures alone so I do not want the thread to get side tracked into a didache discussion but simply wish make a few helpful comments here.
In the Koine Greek of the biblical texts and as posted earlier the naming of the days in the Hebrew culture (unlike the the Romans and the Greeks) used Gods' Word for the naming of the days. For example; if "day" is not in the Greek text the reference point used by the translators in adding the English word day is to "week". This is because the original Greek if "day" is omitted it is normally written in the Greek as "first of the week" meaning first day of the week. The Greek word for reference here to add in the word "day" in the English is the Greek Word "week" therefore the first of the week, is day 1 or the first day of the week which are all are all equivalent readings.
The Greek word for "week" therefore is the reference point and context to the numbering of the days of the "week" that the translators add in the English word "day" into our English translations which is the equivalent of the original Greek text and the reference point for adding "day" into our translations (e.g. John 20:19 see
Greek context to week here). Now note; Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "
the Lords day" with ἡμέρᾳ (day) not being a supplied word of the translators but the original Greek text that is
not supplied.
Koine Greek translators are well aware of this, which is why all translations of the Didache render 14.1 as "the Lords day"...
With what was posted in the previous section to you with the need to have a reference point for a translator to add in the word "day" and as been shown through the scriptures that normally if the Greek word day is not used there is normally a reference point to "week". There is no reference point in the didache for the translators to add the word day in a translation. This is where you run into problems but let me explain why. In the translation of the didache in the Greek there is no reference points to the Greek words for day or week used in the entire document as shown earlier by
@HIM in his link to the original Greek text and
the didache in the Greek does not say "the Lords day" in the
original Greek.
Here is the proof that the English translation has been mistranslated.
Didache 14:1a in the original Greek reads....
Κατὰ κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου συναχθέντες κλάσατε ἄρτον καὶ εὐχαριστήσατε, προεξομολογησάμενοι τὰ παραπτώματα ὑμῶν, ὅπως καθαρὰ ἡ θυσία ὑμῶν ᾐ.
Didache 14:1a in the original Greek to English....
According to 'the Lord's things' of Lord: gather break bread and give thanks, confessing out
Mistranslated to English....
Didache 14:1a as mistranslated to the English with
no reference point for translation reads....
"
But every Lord's [day] gather yourselves together, and break bread, and give thanksgiving"
The first clause in Greek, "κατά κυριακήν δέ κυρίου", literally means "
On the Lord's of the Lord", a unique and unexplained double possessive, and translators supply the elided noun, e.g., "day" (ἡμέρα
hemera), "commandment" (from the immediately prior verse 13:7), or "doctrine". This is one of two early extrabiblical Christian uses of "κυριακήν" where it does not clearly refer to Sunday because textual readings have given rise to questions of proper translation. According to the scriptures breaking bread of bread is also
not a reference point because this can be done daily or weekly at any time of the week *Acts of the Apostles 2:42, 20:7. (
Ambiguous references)
..................
So at best all you have here once again is an
undated manuscript with
no name or reference point that scholars cannot even agree on in regards to dating that mysteriously appeared out of a Catholic monastery in 1873 which has been mistranslated to include "the Lords day" with no reference to time, day or week with no reference point for the inclusion of the added word "day" to Lords of the Lord. Therefore a mistranslation.
The Didache was written in AD60, well before John wrote Revelation, and together with other early Christian literature, shows us that the term "the Lords day" was in common use at the time to refer to Sunday, the day on which they met together.
I respectfully disagree as this claim is impossible to prove as there was no date or author attached to the original didache manuscript. Some scholars even date it to the 3rd and 4th Century. Keeping in mind here this is a document that only suddenly appeared inside a Catholic monastery in Turkey in 1873 which in the original Greek has no reference to "the Lords day" which is also
not scripture that proves that the "Lords day" is Sunday or the first day of the week but simply a questionable document from a questionable source with questionable dating with a questionable translation a demonstrated above.
.................
Can we get back to the OP now? Can you show me how we get Sunday or the first day of the week from the scripture alone that show that the man-made teachings of the early Church's use of "the Lords day" to Sunday is biblical?
Take Care
