Sorry but I respectfully disagree with you and the scriptures are posted for all to see as shown in post # 588 linked...
sure... I'll dissect post #588
[1]. Gods' Word has been provided from Revelation 1:10 showing that the Greek words τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated into English as "the Lords day" that John is attributing to Jesus means the day that is belonging to the Lord or the Lords ownership of the day.
scripture listed: Revelation 1:10
this of course is a summary of the verse in question and it is you're making an agreeable point. John of course uses the term "Lord's Day" as a colloquialism not as an explicit statement or claim of the day (but still implicit). One way we know it's a colloquialism is the word used in the text translated as "Lord's" (kuriakos) is a Greek word that emerges out of the early church. There are 2 examples of is used in the NT, this passage and a reference to the Lord's supper in 1 Cor 11:20 and it does not appear in the septuagint.
HELPS Word-studies defines it as follows:
2960 kyriakós (an adjective, derived from 2962 /kýrios, "lord") – properly, pertaining (belonging) to the Lord (kyrios). 2960 (kyriakós) is used of the Lord's Supper (i.e. "communion," the Lord's table) and "the Lord's day" (Sunday) as the appointed day for rest and worship. See 1 Cor 11:20; Rev 1:10.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon defines it this way (definition 2 is used):
2. relating to the Lord, ἡ κυριακῇ ἡμέρα, the day devoted to the Lord, sacred to the memory of Christ's resurrection, Revelation 1:10 (cf. 'κυριακῇ κυρίου, Teaching 14, 1 [ET] (where see Harnack); cf. B. D., under the word ; Lightfoot Ignatius ad Magn. [ET], p. 129; Müller on the Epistle of Barnabas 15, 9 [ET]); γραφαί κυριακαι the writings concerning the Lord, i. e. the Gospels, Clement of Alexandria, others (Cf. Sophocles' Lexicon, under the word.)
both agree the day in question is Sunday or pertaining to the "memory of Christ's resurrection"
[2]. God's Word has been provided from *Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28 and Luke 6:5 showing that the day Jesus claims authority over as Lord is the Sabbath day and that Jesus has this authority as Lord of the Sabbath because he is the creator God of heaven and earth and the Sabbath day that he rested on after His finished work of creation where he blessed and made holy the Sabbath day as a memorial of creation **John 1:1-4; ; Colossians 1:16; Genesis 2:1-3
Scripture listed (part a):
Matthew 12:8
Mark 2:28
Luke 6:5
The Matthew, Mark and Luke references are the same event articulated over the gospels. The main point is derived from this line that each agrees with "The Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath". This establishes not ownership but authority of the Sabbath which is the point Christ is making. As it pertains to Christ being the author of the Sabbath this is a bit misleading and tends to mash Christ in a conflated version of the trinity. John 1:3 tells us "Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made" and Col 1:16 “For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him". This presents a different perspective than what you are setting as the role of Christ in creation. Scripture/translations tend to favour the language "through him". This certainly doesn't take away Christ's intrinsic authority/ownership but it's a different focus then what you're taking. I tend to favour the biblical presentation of Christ.
scripture listed (part b):
John 1:1-4; 14;
Colossians 1:16
Genesis 2:1-3
You haven't made it clear why you are using the John and Colossians verses as it is not inline with your point. As previous mentioned both John and Colossians shows us the language "through him all things were made" and John 1:14 tells us the word became flesh. These are fairly agreeable verses and well established doctrinally but you're not really being specific how it builds you point. Are you simply trying to say Christ is God? That's all well and good but no one is disagreeing with that so the verses seems misplaced are at least needs to be better unpacked. Certainly Genesis 2:1-3 is inline with your point but how does John 1:1-4 and Colossians 1:16 contribute to this? Christ was there, and all things were through him, including rest and blessings. This is just too undeveloped of a point and I don't see how this builds your cause.
[3] God's Word has been provided showing that the day that Jesus as the God of creation and God claims both authority and ownership over is the Sabbath day where God demonstrates ownership calling the Sabbath "My Holy day"; My Sabbaths; The Sabbath of the Lord thy God; The Sabbath of rest holy unto the Lord; the Holy day of the Lord which are all scripture references to the Sabbath day in * Isaiah 58:13; Exodus 31:12-18; Leviticus 19:30; Ezekiel 20:12; Deuteronomy 5:15; Leviticus 23:3; Exodus 31:15; Exodus 20:10 demonstrating God's claim to ownership over the Sabbath day in light of Johns claim of "the Lords day or the Lords ownership of the day "The Lords day". The scriptures provided above demonstrate both the authority of Jesus as Lord of the Sabbath and Jesus and God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day! While in return there is not a single scripture that links τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ "the Lords day" to Sunday or the first day of the week.
scripture listed:
Isaiah 58:13 - "My holy day"
Exodus 31:12-18 - "My Sabbaths"
Leviticus 19:30 - "My Sabbaths"
Ezekiel 20:12 - "My Sabbaths"
Deuteronomy 5:15 - "God commanded you to [a]celebrate the Sabbath day"
Leviticus 23:3 (the 4th commandment)
Exodus 31:15 - (the 4th commandment)
Exodus 20:10 - the seventh day is a Sabbath of the Lord your God
I've included the most relevant quote to reference them quicker. All these verses show the importance of the sabbath and establisher through various language that the Sabbath is God's such as "My holy Day" or "My Sabbaths" etc... They do indeed build a case for the Sabbath belonging to God and one that is very agreeable. So I'll infer that your point here is since the Sabbath is well established as belonging to God biblical references of a day uniquely identified with God broadly or specifically should be assumed it is the Sabbath if not otherwise mentioned.
And this is the point you've established through the assumption that because the OT views the Sabbath "this" way, Rev 1:10 must be the Sabbath. That's a reasonable enough point but it is a bias. It's a bias because it focuses is only a half answer of "why the Lord's day is the Sabbath" but you failed to answer the other half of "Why it's not Sunday".
Scripturally Sunday is an established day of gathering demonstrated in Acts 20:7; 1 Cor. 16:2. We also see this unique word only being used in the NT kuriakos despite what appears to be similar language elsewhere this is a new word not used before (including the Septuagint). In the NT it's used twice in Revelation 1:10 (the text in question) and I Corinthians 11:20 which is referring to the Lord's Supper. The references are few for Sunday gathering as well as this unique word but they are enough and a line can connect it all with 2 verses. I Corinthians 11:20 uses the term kuriakos (1 of the only 2 references in the bible) which is a unique word for what seems to involve worship towards Christ but literally that which belongs to Christ. This word is used to reference the Lord's Supper. So when do we have the Lord's supper? Scripture shows us in Acts 20:7 that there was a tradition established of "breaking bread" upon the first day of the week. So we see the Lord's Supper being valued on the first day of the week. Would this not make sense to call the day also "The Lord's Day"? This is in line with the historical record of the early Christians gathering on Sunday, the oldest being the Didache which has instruction saying "every Lord's day gather yourselves together, and break bread, and give thanksgiving". This is extra-biblical, I know, but what is important is the same language is used of "breaking bread" for the Lord's Supper which biblically speaking agrees with Sunday.
The Lord's supper is a memorial to what? His role in creation? His birth? His rest? Specifically not these, it is a celebration of his memorial of his death and resurrection. 1 Corinthians 11:20 and surrounding context clearly shows a tradition of gathering and participating in the Lord's supper when they gather. A meal celebrating the death and resurrection of Christ is called the "Lord's Supper" and seems appropriate to have it on a day that also celebrates his death and resurrection and called the "Lord's Day" being the day of the week Christ resurrected. The Sabbath does not capture this value and both these NT examples of this unique greek word "kuriakos" are exclusively about Christ. The first is undeniably about a repeated memorial event of his death and resurrection that is supported biblically as happening every time believers met. NT establishes believers met on the first day of the week and this is supported by the historical record so it would be reasonable that his expression used in Rev 1:10 "Lord's Day" also is of a memorial to Christ's death and resurrection as it is the day you partake of the Lord's Supper.