klutedavid
Well-Known Member
You need to explain the following verse in Romans.Excerpt from: UNDER THE LAW!
"Under the law"
Paul is the only one in the Bible who uses this phrase.
It's found 11 times in his writings.
Romans 3:19
(CLV) Ro 3:19
Now we are aware that, whatever the law is saying, it is speaking to those under the law, that every mouth may be barred, and the entire world may become subject to the just verdict of God,
Let's look at this very carefully. The law speaks to those under the law.
The law speaks so that every mouth in the entire world may become subject to YHWH's judgement.
As all are subject to YHWH's verdict; it appears that we have two groups here. One group is already subject to YHWH's judgement. The other would not be subject to YHWH's judgement in absence of his Torah.
The preceding verse serves to further define the behavior of those who are under the law:
(CLV) Ro 3:18
There is not fear of God in front of their eyes.
Why would we fear our loving Abba?
(CLV) Ex 20:20
Then Moses said to the people: Do not fear, for in order to probe you the One, Elohim has come, and in order that the fear of Him should come over your faces, that you may not sin.
What is sin?
(CLV) 1Jn 3:4
Everyone who is doing sin is doing lawlessness also, and sin is lawlessness.
Romans 2
12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law.
If sin is lawlessness; then how can the folk who have never heard the law perish?
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