I have a few questions for those who believe that one cannot be sinless in this life.
1. Romans 7 vs 7 to 23 is interpreted as being post salvation. If this is true...
Why is Paul, who claims to live by faith and not by the law since coming to Christ still struggling with the law?
2. 1 John 1 is often interpreted as proof that those who say they have achieved sinlessness in this life are liars, Yet in John 2 vs 1 he says he wrote it so that we may stop sinning. Does this not show that you have misinterpreted his intention in chapter 1?
3. If you came across such a one as has not sinned since salvation, why would this bother you? Is it not a good thing?
4. Do you not know that to become sinless is a gift of grace? It is all of Christ and not of man. Are you not aware that no one can be sinless without Christ?
I must conclude from reading the Scriptures that the claim one will never cease from sinning while in the body is heresy and not the doctrine of Christ or his apostles.
1. Romans 7 vs 7 to 23 is interpreted as being post salvation. If this is true...
Why is Paul, who claims to live by faith and not by the law since coming to Christ still struggling with the law?
2. 1 John 1 is often interpreted as proof that those who say they have achieved sinlessness in this life are liars, Yet in John 2 vs 1 he says he wrote it so that we may stop sinning. Does this not show that you have misinterpreted his intention in chapter 1?
3. If you came across such a one as has not sinned since salvation, why would this bother you? Is it not a good thing?
4. Do you not know that to become sinless is a gift of grace? It is all of Christ and not of man. Are you not aware that no one can be sinless without Christ?
I must conclude from reading the Scriptures that the claim one will never cease from sinning while in the body is heresy and not the doctrine of Christ or his apostles.