Incorrect understanding of my belief again.
Again, my belief is that that Ephraim became as gentiles, alienated to the covenants through their divorce by God and scattering by Assyria. Over 700 years, from the Assyrian exile to the 1st advent, many of Ephraim's descendants would mix genetically, socially, culturally, and religiously with the surrounding nations.
Thus, by God including the gentiles, of whom some descended from Ephraim, into the body of Christ, he fulfills his promises to Ephraim's descendants.
This is substantiated by Paul quoting hosea as fulfilled with the Jews and gentiles in being included in the vessels of mercy
Ephraim’s circumstances after hundreds of years of exile, being mixed through intermarriage, and being divorced from God, does not refute their ancestry and the consistency that Hosea 2:23 was prophesied about them and not the gentiles, who were of no such ancestry. You inadvertently
conceded this when you stated: “
It's a simple fact that some people in Paul's society had descended from Ephraim and some had not.” Hosea 1:6 states that God “will no more have mercy on the house of Israel,” meaning that prior to being cast off Ephraim had been shown God’s mercy as His chosen firstborn son (Exodus 4:22), who was also personified as his wife through a covenant relationship, which cannot be sustained about gentiles who were of no such ancestry.
To assert that Romans 9:25-26 pertains to the gentiles in the context of Romans 9 is a claim that Hosea was wrong and that Hosea 2:23 was not about Ephraim but was about people of all nations that had never before been shown God’s mercy as His chosen people and had never before been personified as his wife through a covenant relationship. As I stated previously, your interpretation clearly refutes the inerrancy of scripture.
Your refutation of the grammatical-historical interpretation of scripture is persistent, as you had previously refuted the promise that “Ephraim” would be brought back in Zechariah 10:6, 9-12, or in essence, to their land, Samaria.
Your refutation asserts that Zechariah 10:6, 9-12 was wrong and that the gentiles are also “restored” even though they never had been cast out of Samaria, the promised land in said text. If you had stated that the texts pertained strictly to Ephraim because of the contextual element of restoration to their land and that the NT provides the progressive revelation that elect gentiles are to be joined to them, in acknowledgment they are not to be interpreted as “restored to the land,” as Ephraim, then your interpretation would maintain the inerrancy of Zechariah and the grammatical-historical interpretation, but that was not the case.
Furthermore, the prophecies of Zechariah 10-11 affirm that Christ came not to establish the Messianic kingdom, but to end the Old Covenant relationship with Judah and cast off the disobedient house of Judah that salvation would come to the gentiles (Romans 11:11), which is why the remnant of Judah has to be
brought back in Zechariah 10:6, 9-12. The Messianic kingdom is fixed to the event when Israel and Judah are
brought back to dwell in security, as in Jeremiah 23:1-6, Isaiah 11, Zechariah 14, Ezekiel 38:8-12 and Revelation 11:15-18,
which creates a fallacy in any assertion that Christ came to establish his kingdom at the same time he came to cast off rebellious Judah and sow Ephraim so that salvation would come to the gentiles in Romans 11:11. By your acknowledgment that God fulfills his promises to Ephraim when Christ came you unintentionally affirm that Ephraim is the first son in the parable of the two sons.
"What do you think? A man had two sons. And he went to the first and said, 'Son, go and work in the vineyard today. 'And he answered, 'I will not,' but afterward he changed his mind and went. And he went to the other son and said the same. And he answered, 'I go, sir,' but did not go. Which of the two did the will of his father?" They said, "The first." Jesus said to them, "Truly, I say to you, the tax collectors and the prostitutes go into the kingdom of God before you. Matthew 21:28-31
In the grammatical-historical interpretation, the man must go initially to his firstborn, considering that the firstborn had the principal responsibilities as well as privileges. This is further substantiated that Ephraim is God’s firstborn in Jeremiah 31:9 that finds grace in the wilderness and is then sown in the world, just as in Zechariah 10:8-9.
"At that time, declares the LORD, I will be the God of all the clans of Israel, and they shall be my people." Thus says the LORD: "The people who survived the sword found grace in the wilderness; when Israel sought for rest…. "Behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when I will sow the house of Israel and the house of Judah with the seed of man and the seed of beast. And it shall come to pass that as I have watched over them to pluck up and break down, to overthrow, destroy, and bring harm, so I will watch over them to build and to plant, declares the LORD. In those days they shall no longer say: "'The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge. 'But everyone shall die for his own sin. Each man who eats sour grapes, his teeth shall be set on edge. Jeremiah 31:1-2, 27-30
Clearly, Jeremiah, above, and Zechariah’s account are of Christ’s first advent and the source of many of the parables, such as the wheat and tares, considering that the annulment of the Old Covenant ends the punishment of the children for the sins of the fathers in the idiom, above, which was the ramifications of the curses under the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 28:15-68). Returning to the parable, the son who said he wouldn’t go and work the vineyard but afterward changed his mind was Ephraim, which is why he is God’s firstborn in Jeremiah 31:9, while the son who said he would but would not, is obviously Judah. Ephraim is clearly the nation, the firstborn, that bears the fruit of the vineyard. God’s intent to plant the elect remnant of Judah and Ephraim in the world is for the purpose of bringing in the gentiles and is by definition the kingdom of God or heaven in the NT, but it is not the Messianic kingdom conveyed in Jeremiah 23:1-6, Isaiah 11, Zechariah 14 and Revelation 11:15-18. The Messianic kingdom delivers the people of God from their enemies, which is not the purpose of this age, but the next.
Good, so you agree the reconciliation began at the 1st century.
The NT affirms that Jews and Ephraimites found brotherhood in Christ in Peter’s epistles as the exception to the prophecy that their brotherhood is broken in Zechariah 11:13. The explanation is obvious; the Jews predominantly disavowed Christ and Ephraim predominantly avowed him, which allows for the exceptions and the fulfillment of Zechariah 11:13 at the same time. Isaiah 11 affirms that when Christ strikes “the earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips he shall kill the wicked,” the brotherhood is restored, which is clearly the time of the Messianic kingdom (Isaiah 11:4). And Romans 15:12 does not affirm Isaiah 11 was fulfilled at the first advent, because Isaiah 11:4 did not materialize.
You seem to ignore the NT application of the OT scriptures to suit your interpretation of the OT.
One shouldn’t apply the NT to change the OT, as you do. One should read the OT exactly for what it states and use the NT to add anything beyond the prophet’s vision, which does not change the original intent, for when one does change the original intent, they overthrow the inerrancy of scripture. Just as in the case of the prophecies that Ephraim would be sown in the world, which is never prophesied about the gentiles, which I stated you avoid.
Never avoided it. I just don't make a distinction between those within the body of Christ, like you do.
It was a mystery revealed by the spirit at the 1st advent, that the gentiles would members of the same body
Not only do you avoid that the gentiles are never prophesied to be sown in the world, you avoid that the body of Christ has different members and not all are called to be ministers. Ephraim was called to be God’s witnesses to the world, which cannot be upheld about the gentiles.
But now thus says the LORD, he who created you, O Jacob, he who formed you, O Israel: "Fear not, for I have redeemed you; I have called you by name, you are mine…. "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me. Isaiah 43:1, 10
"But now hear, O Jacob my servant, Israel whom I have chosen…. Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any." Isaiah 44:1, 8
In reference to 1 Peter 1:10-12 you wrote,
A mystery is something unknown. The prophet's were concerned with the salvation of the descendants of Ephraim. They did not know that through Christ, all nations would be brought to salvation through the body of Christ under the new covenant. They did not know that the gentiles would be fellow heirs and fellow members of the same body. Thus, by God including the gentiles into the body of Christ along with the elect Jews, he fulfills his promise to the descendants of Ephraim.
He calls the gentiles through Ephraim, the son who said he would not work in the vineyard but did it anyway. 1 Peter 1:10-12 affirms Peter is speaking of Ephraim in 1 Peter 2:9-10 as the “nation” that bears the fruit of the vineyard in Matthew 21:43.