Phil 1:21
Well-Known Member
Thank you as always for your personal opinion, but it's irrelevant to the post of mine you quoted. Perhaps following the threads to which I was responding would be helpful. Please see below.There is not a single verse in Sacred Scripture that teaches that our Lord Jesus’s personal righteousness is imputed to a believer.
And that doctrine is found nowhere else in the history of the Church before Luther.
The verse quoted above does not state or otherwise teach that our Lords’s personal righteousness is imputed to a believer. This is how some Protestants interpret the verse, and this is their tradition, but the verse itself does not expressly teach or imply the meaning that those Protestants attach to it.
Thanks for the answer. Would Catholics also deny that the guilt of our sins is imputed to Christ?
Haven't you and I danced to that song before? I seem to recall a thread where we discussed penal substitutionary atonement and you seemed so surprised as to be alarmed at discovering that the Church does not teach PSA. If I recall correctly, I think I posted a video where Jimmy Akin explains the satisfaction theory of atonement and why that's the better interpretive framework.
In other words, yes.
"For our sake he made him to be sin who did not know sin, so that we might become the righteousness of God in him." 2 Corinthians 5:21 NABRE (Catholic Bible)
Why would the RCC deny that which is spelled out so clearly in the scripture?
Upvote
0