Is it possible to keep the 10 commandments?

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Your proof is....? No where in Genesis does the word sabbath appear.

please stop while you are behind...you are making yourself look foolish

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Then there's no Savior and we have no hope. This also makes Luke 24:44 a lie. If you say no because some laws are specific to women or priests, you'd be in error.

No, YOU are saying that. The reason you are saying that is because you know nothing regarding Torah

 

[listed]

Rom 8:7 because the mind set on the flesh is hostile toward God; for it does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is not even able to do so

Rom 7:15 "For what I am doing, I do not understand; for I am not practicing what I would like to do, but I am doing the very thing I hate. 19 "For the good that I want, I do not do, but I practice the very evil that I do not want.

Rom 7:15, does that sound like a man living by the spirit or someone living by the flesh?

Your application is to the body of flesh only. Read what the next chapter says. Make note we are in Jesus Christ, not the body of flesh.

 

[Yarddog]

Could you just exegete Mathew 5:17-20???

Gees, how long of an exegesis do you want. I told you what Jesus was saying in those verses and you said that was nice but asked for it again. There is no need for a long discourse when a concise one can be given.

 

[listed]

please stop while you are behind...you are making yourself look foolish

Just respond to my statement with proof. Personal attacks and opinions aren't proof or even refutation.

 

[listed]

No, YOU are saying that. The reason you are saying that is because you know nothing regarding Torah

Your proof is....

Why do you resort to slander with I know nothing about the law?

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Just respond to my statement with proof. Personal attacks and opinions aren't proof or even refutation.

Do you read or understand Hebrew?

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Your proof is....

Why do you resort to slander with I know nothing about the law?

It I only slander if it is not true...you make it true with your own words.

 

[listed]

Then that is what He would have said, but He didn't. It would have been VERY easy for Him to say Jews. You do know that both the Sabbath and marriage were instituted BEFORE the fall? The Sabbath was made for ADAM...

The Sabbath was to be used as a sign for Jews...it was not invented or originated at Sinai...

Context is important.

 

[listed]

Do you read or understand Hebrew?

I don't need to. You seem to be saying English text are no where near accurate. You don't provide any discussion of the Hebrew text. I believe I can back up what I've posted with Hebrew text.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Context is important.

Yes it is! The Sabbath was made for Adam, not Adam for the Sabbath. Adam was created FIRST, then the Sabbath after...

 

[listed]

Then that is what He would have said, but He didn't. It would have been VERY easy for Him to say Jews. You do know that both the Sabbath and marriage were instituted BEFORE the fall? The Sabbath was made for ADAM...

The Sabbath was to be used as a sign for Jews...it was not invented or originated at Sinai...

Your proof is...

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

I don't need to. You seem to be saying English text are no where near accurate. You don't provide any discussion of the Hebrew text. I believe I can back up what I've posted with Hebrew text.

what does Sabbath mean in Hebrew??? It is in Genesis...

 

[listed]

Then that is what He would have said, but He didn't. It would have been VERY easy for Him to say Jews. You do know that both the Sabbath and marriage were instituted BEFORE the fall? The Sabbath was made for ADAM...

The Sabbath was to be used as a sign for Jews...it was not invented or originated at Sinai...

Your proof is....

 

[listed]

what does Sabbath mean in Hebrew??? It is in Genesis...

Where? cite the verse(s).

 

[listed]

Yes it is! The Sabbath was made for Adam, not Adam for the Sabbath. Adam was created FIRST, then the Sabbath after...

Your proof is....

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Where? cite the verse(s).

וַיְכַל אֱלֹהִים בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי, מְלַאכְתּוֹ אֲשֶׁר עָשָׂה; וַיִּשְׁבֹּת בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי, מִכָּל-מְלַאכְתּוֹ אֲשֶׁר עָשָׂה.

 

[listed]

It I only slander if it is not true...you make it true with your own words.

Not quite. You say your opinion is true and refuse to back it up with anything.

 

[TheBibleIsTruth]

He said "Torah"

Yes, and the Torah is the first Five Books of the OT, also known as the Books of the Law of Moses

 

[GodsGrace101]

He is talking to his congregation in Ephesus. The reason for writing this letter in the first place is because of the false doctrine of the Nicolaitans that was infiltrating the Church. Paul battled them too. He is writing the difference between those in the light, and those in the darkness so they could recognize the false from the true. 1 John 4:1-3 he pinpoints the basis for their false doctrine.

I know that John was writing to Asia Minor. I'm not going to debate this since new findings may be available that I'm not aware of. Also, I know the false doctrine to be gnosticism.
But I do agree that he was writing about false teachers.

There is a difference between a true Christian and those who use the name, but still walk in darkness.

OK. I won't argue this either. I could live with it. Although I do think sometimes true Christians can walk in darkness and still be saved but that's another thread. Is walking in darkness the same as sinning, for instance? Or is it a denial of God and His Spirit?

The word is not 'practice' nor does it infer just practice. What translation are you looking at???
Throw it away.

Throw away the NASB?? LOL
I have many bibles, not just one. I even have 3 different versions in the Italian language, and the YLT which you quote below.

I think the problem is here:
1 John 1:9 tells us that IF we sin, we can be forgiven---so apparently we can sin.

Then 1 John 3:6 tells us that if we are in Christ we do not sin.

So which is it? Theologians agree that John is saying that we do not PRACTICE sin -- it's the only explanation since the bible cannot contradict itself. We know that it's not possible to NOT sin.

1 John 3:9 Young's Literal Translation (YLT)

9 every one who hath been begotten of God, sin he doth not, because his seed in him doth remain, and he is not able to sin, because of God he hath been begotten.

Just as an aside....my YLT does not quote the above.
This is mine:

YLT
1 John 3:9
"If we may confess our sins, stedfast, He is and righteous that He may forgive us the sins, and may cleanse us from every unrighteousness."

1 John 3:9 New King James Version (NKJV)

9 Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.

1 John 3:9 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
9 No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

1 John 3:9 King James Version (KJV)
9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

I don't feel qualified to discuss this,,,as I said theologians believe it should say "practice sin".

Maybe I misunderstood you then. Do you believe 1 John 1:8 is talking to and about a Christian? "8 If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."

Some do use that verse claiming a Christians sins.

The gnostics believed material was sin. So the BODY sinned, but not the spirit. John is saying that they could NOT say they did not have sin because the TRUTH (God's word) was not in them if they did. IOW, we sin not only in body but it also affecs our spirit.

Those who do not have the truth are not Christian, so we agree on that.