The problem of Objective Morality. and why even biblical speaking it is subjective

Status
Not open for further replies.

stevevw

inquisitive
Nov 4, 2013
12,771
967
Brisbane Qld Australia
✟247,179.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Yes laws are based on morals, but people have to compromise on their morals because nobody agrees on the details of morality because they are subjective;
Isn't that going against subjective morality. I thought subjective morality allows everyone to have different moral views and therefore they do not have to compromise anything. If they have to compromise their moral views then that would be more objective morality.
but with laws, everybody has to agree on the details of laws so laws must be objective in order to get everybody to agree.
Not everyone agrees with the law. Someone may think smoking pot is OK but the law says it is illegal.

The virgin willingly allowed herself to be thrown into the volcano too. Look all I’m saying is they are both human sacrifice; whether all of such sacrificing is equal is another debate. Now if morality were objective, you wouldn’t have the option of allowing extenuating circumstances to say its okay when my guy does it, its only wrong when the other guy does that stuff. Thats subjective.
No that is exceptional circumstance that may allow a person to breach that moral. It does not change the meaning of the moral but allows it to be breached only when there is another greater moral that supercedes it. If the virgin went willingly to her sacrifice then how is it wrong. The point you are trying to make about the changing meaning of morals is if a person was forced into sacrifice which is murder. If the person goes willingly for a greater cause it is not murder. Different circumstances.

If a person defends themselves and their family and kills the attacker it is not murder. It is an exceptional circumstance that accommodates the person taking another life otherwise they will be guilty of a greater wrong in not protecting life. The original moral of thou shall not kill is still maintained. Just becuase the person says I think you can kill someone in self defence does not mean there is another version of that moral to make it subjective. The original moral to not kill still stands and it just has some situations that allow it to be breached. This is where peple get mixed up with thinking that the circumstances that allow someone to breach a moral is subjective.

So why do you claim morality as objective if that means everybody agrees on the same God’s rules?
I am not sure what you mean. If everybody agrees or follows the same morality that is beyond human views then that is objective morality. Objective morality does not mean we have to force everyone to follow the same morals. I think you are meaning the importance of free choice. In that I agree.
 
Upvote 0

quatona

"God"? What do you mean??
May 15, 2005
37,512
4,301
✟175,292.00
Faith
Seeker
Isn't that going against subjective morality.
No.
I thought subjective morality allows everyone to have different moral views
Subjective morality is an epistemological concept - it doesn´t say anything about what you have to allow or disallow.
and therefore they do not have to compromise anything.
Correct, they do not have to (unless you count being punished otherwise as "having to"). The point is that many people compromise willingly - knowing well that a complex society requires everyone to compromise.
If they have to compromise their moral views then that would be more objective morality.
What??
Not everyone agrees with the law. Someone may think smoking pot is OK but the law says it is illegal.
Yeah, that´s because morality is subjective.
 
Upvote 0

stevevw

inquisitive
Nov 4, 2013
12,771
967
Brisbane Qld Australia
✟247,179.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Yes. People also say "this tastes good" and insist they won´t eat it - even though they don´t intend to make an objective statement. It´s just the way these words are used.
I am not sure if that is a good comparison. It is not about words and that’s the whole point. How a person reacts is a true indication of what they really believe regardless of their cognitive thoughts, ideas, views, or a change of mind. Their reaction is an emotion which overrides anything they may have said and therefore exposes their true views on things. So they may say one thing but really believe another by their reaction.

Sure people don´t like it when something is taken away from them.
This will be the same for all morals. That’s why I said that we can see whether an act is wrong or not by a person’s reaction to the situation. If stealing was a truly a subjective moral act, then you should be accepting that people steal will from you. You should be understanding that the other person views stealing as not wrong because they have a different subjective view. Otherwise, you’re not truly living what you subscribe to that people have the right to see morality differently and are denying their rights. They cannot be held responsible for what they do that may affect you.

So, therefore, subjective morality is responsible for a lot of conflicts.
And make no mistake: Even people who believe that there´s an objective morality for them to follow disagree with each other.
Is that really objective morality or subjective morality dressed up in another way as objective morality. I thought objective morality was the one absolute set of morals. There is only one truth and having several truths is a contradiction of the meaning of truth.
Because ISIS are moral objectivists? Sounds like you are shooting your own foot here.
ISIS act in contradiction of their own morals by killing their own indiscriminately, drinking and taking drugs, associating with organised crime etc. Many true Muslims say they are not acting like Muslims.

The point is because society allows subjective morals radical groups like ISIS have been able to preach their message in the western societies they are trying to destroy. It is only because the western countries have started to crack down on anyone who has hate preaching that this practice is being stopped. But it was allowed to go on for years and still does in less extreme ways because there is nothing that allows us to determine what is good and bad and say this is wrong and against our values/morals because we have to acknowledge that views different to our own have just as much right to exists even if we disagree with them. If anything that is shooting ourselves in the foot.

No, you don´t. You just claim you have. :)
That may be according to you. I could say that your claim that I don’t is also unsubstantiated because you do not know or have no scientific verification that there is no objective morality. In fact, the case for objective morality seems to make more sense and stand up to reason. Even many atheists support objective morality as they have come to the conclusion that we cannot deny morals are objective. But you won't find any believers in a god say there is subjective morality.

Those atheists who support objective morality just don’t believe it is from God and say that it is inherent in nature just like the laws of nature are. Anyway shouldn't subjective moralists allow people with the view that there is objective morality to sit at the table as well. Or is that an objective view that there is no objective morality. Now I am confusing myself. :|

And that´s exactly what we observe.
Which is part of the problem that is causing conflict between nations and people? If you look closely you will see that we act like morals are objective anyway in the end. When moral subjectivism fails we tend to start plugging the holes it leaves by bringing in rules and regulations and restricting people’s freedoms by telling what they can and can’t do. It’s all reactive. What is regarded as good and bad is continually redefined according to the politically correct brigade such as with religious and speech freedoms and we begin disallow things to the point that there is practically an objective rule anyway.

Btw. even Christianity has undergone major changes in its moral views, and even Biblegod commands different strokes for different folks.
I think you are confusing the punishments and the situations. The moral laws have remained the same, but the morals may have existed at different times where there were different contexts.[/quote] I can probably guess what examples you are thinking of and I have heard these before and they do not apply and I can show you why as well. So rather than I guess why don't you give me an example.

I can demonstrate that there exist subjective moral views, and that morality is relative.
As soon as you can demonstrate that, on top of that, there´s some objective and/or absolute morality out there, we can get talking about it.
I agreed with your first part that there exist subjective morals views but that does not mean that morals are ultimately subjective. Proving subjective and objective morality is hard as it is all about a philosophical position. There are no direct physical aspects we can scientifically test and can only support our position with indirect evidence. Nevertheless as mentioned earlier there are atheists who support objective morality because they see it as the only logical conclusion and give good support for this. Apart from this there are only the philosophical arguments. I will have to get back to the evidence as I am a bit busy and it will take a bit of research.
 
Upvote 0

quatona

"God"? What do you mean??
May 15, 2005
37,512
4,301
✟175,292.00
Faith
Seeker
I am not sure if that is a good comparison. It is not about words and that’s the whole point. How a person reacts is a true indication of what they really believe regardless of their cognitive thoughts, ideas, views, or a change of mind. Their reaction is an emotion which overrides anything they may have said and therefore exposes their true views on things. So they may say one thing but really believe another by their reaction.
So then this is a good comparison - it shows that you just assume it in one case but not the other.

This will be the same for all morals.
That’s why I said that we can see whether an act is wrong or not by a person’s reaction to the situation. If stealing was a truly a subjective moral act, then you should be accepting that people steal will from you. You should be understanding that the other person views stealing as not wrong because they have a different subjective view.
I understand that that´s what you claim they do.

So, therefore, subjective morality is responsible for a lot of conflicts.
Different opinions tend to lead to conflicts. Moral subjectivism acknowledges that.
Is that really objective morality or subjective morality dressed up in another way as objective morality.
It´s the latter. Now, you are invited to come up with demonstrating an "objective morality" that isn´t a subjective view pretending to be objective.
I thought objective morality was the one absolute set of morals. There is only one truth and having several truths is a contradiction of the meaning of truth.
Yes, that´s what objective moralists believe. Unfortunately, they disagree on what objective morality prescribes.
ISIS act in contradiction of their own morals by killing their own indiscriminately, drinking and taking drugs, associating with organised crime etc. Many true Muslims say they are not acting like Muslims.
Yeah, lots of disagreements even within those groups that claim to adhere to the same "objective morality".

The point is because society allows subjective morals radical groups like ISIS have been able to preach their message in the western societies they are trying to destroy.
Well, if society could present some demonstrably "objective morality" that might help. Until that happens, we can´t take people more seriously just because they claim their morals to be objective.


That may be according to you.
No, it´s an observation. All your arguments argue for the desirability of there being an objective morality (and one that agrees with you). When it comes to demonstrating the existence of such, you have been empty-handed so far.
I could say that your claim that I don’t is also unsubstantiated because you do not know or have no scientific verification that there is no objective morality.
That is you assuming that I am claiming there isn´t such a thing. Whereas in fact I am patiently waiting for you to demonstrate its existence.


Anyway shouldn't subjective moralists allow people with the view that there is objective morality to sit at the table as well.
What their subjective morality allows for or not depends entirely on what their subjective moral views are.
And yes, moral objectivist are typically allowed a place at the table - however, their moral views aren´t given more weight just because they claim them to be objectve.
Or is that an objective view that there is no objective morality. Now I am confusing myself. :|
Yes, here you are making the category error that you make frequently.

Which is part of the problem that is causing conflict between nations and people? If you look closely you will see that we act like morals are objective anyway in the end. When moral subjectivism fails
Moral subjectivism can´t "fail". It isn´t a strategy.It´s an observation.
we tend to start plugging the holes it leaves by bringing in rules and regulations and restricting people’s freedoms by telling what they can and can’t do. It’s all reactive. What is regarded as good and bad is continually redefined according to the politically correct brigade such as with religious and speech freedoms and we begin disallow things to the point that there is practically an objective rule anyway.
Yeah sure, a lot of people pretend or claim that their subjective views are objective once they can´t convince others of their subjective views.


I agreed with your first part that there exist subjective morals views but that does not mean that morals are ultimately subjective.
No, certainly not. You just have to demonstrate that - on top of subjective morals - there exists such a thing as "objective morals", and you are done.
 
Upvote 0

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
Isn't that going against subjective morality. I thought subjective morality allows everyone to have different moral views and therefore they do not have to compromise anything. If they have to compromise their moral views then that would be more objective morality.
Yes Laws are a compromised version of morality that everybody (most) can agree on. Laws are objective, morality is subjective.
Not everyone agrees with the law. Someone may think smoking pot is OK but the law says it is illegal.
True but with laws, there are enough people in charge that agree with it to make it an enforceable law.
No that is exceptional circumstance that may allow a person to breach that moral. It does not change the meaning of the moral but allows it to be breached only when there is another greater moral that supercedes it. If the virgin went willingly to her sacrifice then how is it wrong. The point you are trying to make about the changing meaning of morals is if a person was forced into sacrifice which is murder. If the person goes willingly for a greater cause it is not murder. Different circumstances.

If a person defends themselves and their family and kills the attacker it is not murder. It is an exceptional circumstance that accommodates the person taking another life otherwise they will be guilty of a greater wrong in not protecting life. The original moral of thou shall not kill is still maintained. Just becuase the person says I think you can kill someone in self defence does not mean there is another version of that moral to make it subjective. The original moral to not kill still stands and it just has some situations that allow it to be breached. This is where peple get mixed up with thinking that the circumstances that allow someone to breach a moral is subjective.
When personal beliefs, biases, and extenuating circumstances are taken into consideration before determining the moral outcome, that is subjective morality. You are making my point.
I am not sure what you mean. If everybody agrees or follows the same morality that is beyond human views then that is objective morality.
True! But everybody does not follow the same morality that is beyond human views, everybody brings their own set of morals to the table thus subjective morality.
 
Upvote 0

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
One thing for sure:
People dont have clear shared ideas about what "subjective" and "objective" morality even mean.

This makes these discussions something of a mush.
Objective is measurable facts, which means anything objective can be demonstrated as true.
Subjective is based on biases, personal opinions, and interpretations.
If we apply this to morality, Objective morality would be moral claims that can be demonstrated as true. Meaning; (for example) I believe lying is wrong. But can it be demonstrated as wrong? No; my belief is based on personal opinions, and interpretations; because in some cases lying could be the right thing to do (such as saving an innocent persons life) This makes morality subjective.

Subjective vs Objective - Difference and Comparison | Diffen
 
Upvote 0

durangodawood

Dis Member
Aug 28, 2007
23,602
15,761
Colorado
✟433,247.00
Country
United States
Faith
Seeker
Marital Status
Single
Objective is measurable facts, which means anything objective can be demonstrated as true.
Subjective is based on biases, personal opinions, and interpretations.
If we apply this to morality, Objective morality would be moral claims that can be demonstrated as true. Meaning; (for example) I believe lying is wrong. But can it be demonstrated as wrong? No; my belief is based on personal opinions, and interpretations; because in some cases lying could be the right thing to do (such as saving an innocent persons life) This makes morality subjective.

Subjective vs Objective - Difference and Comparison | Diffen
You think youve got the definitions of objective and subjective morality down tight. But when I examine the link you provided, I'm not so sure. It says

objective: Based upon Observation of measurable facts
subjective: Based upon personal opinions, assumptions, interpretations and beliefs

Seems totally reasonable that enduring moral rules like dont steal or dont murder your neighbor are based upon the observable fact that societies where theft and murder are rampant are miserable to live in.

(And lets not call misery subjective. For the most part misery/contentment can be objectively studied in humans just like in any other branch of animal behavior. And while there's a subjective component to the experience, there's more than enough objectively accessible facts about human satisfaction.)
 
Upvote 0

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
You think youve got the definitions of objective and subjective morality down tight. But when I examine the link you provided, I'm not so sure. It says

objective: Based upon Observation of measurable facts
subjective: Based upon personal opinions, assumptions, interpretations and beliefs

Seems totally reasonable that enduring moral rules like dont steal or dont murder your neighbor are based upon the observable fact that societies where theft and murder are rampant are miserable to live in.

(And lets not call misery subjective. For the most part misery/contentment can be objectively studied in humans just like in any other branch of animal behavior. And while there's a subjective component to the experience, there's more than enough objectively accessible facts about human satisfaction.)

Fair enough. Can you demonstrate stealing and murdering is always wrong in every circumstances?

Stealing is a legal term meaning to illegally take somebody's property that doesn't belong to you. But how about if you determined that crooked laws allowed this person to take what was rightfully yours? Do you have a moral right to take it back?
Murder is a legal term meaning to kill an innocent person. But what if you determine the laws are crooked, and the person is not innocent? According to the law, Hitler, Stalin, and Mao were innocent but their victims were not.

Again; can you demonstrate stealing and murder is always wrong in every circumstance?
 
Upvote 0

durangodawood

Dis Member
Aug 28, 2007
23,602
15,761
Colorado
✟433,247.00
Country
United States
Faith
Seeker
Marital Status
Single
Fair enough. Can you demonstrate stealing and murdering is always wrong in every circumstances?

Stealing is a legal term meaning to illegally take somebody's property that doesn't belong to you. But how about if you determined that crooked laws allowed this person to take what was rightfully yours? Do you have a moral right to take it back?
Murder is a legal term meaning to kill an innocent person. But what if you determine the laws are crooked, and the person is not innocent? According to the law, Hitler, Stalin, and Mao were innocent but their victims were not.

Again; can you demonstrate stealing and murder is always wrong in every circumstance?
I dont think that question cuts along the objective/subjective line.

Just because "stealing is bad" has a basis in objective reality does not mean the moral can be implemented free from conflict with other valid morals, in every case. More often than not the hierarchy of morals has an objective basis too. For example almost every culture in the world regards murder as worse than theft. Thats no miracle of randomness or subjectivity. Its based on tried and true observation of how people and societies function.

So given some hypothetical where you have no choice but to do a. theft or b. murder, experience of objective reality teaches us to do the least of the 2 wrongs.

(Also, Stalin is such a great example of all objective morals generally, because his whole regime was based on theft. That, and murder. And what a basket of misery that place was. We can study it a draw reasoned - not arbitrary - conclusions about how to act, all couched in the facts of life as a human animal.)
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
I dont think that question cuts along the objective/subjective line.

Just because "stealing is bad" has a basis in objective reality does not mean the moral can be implemented free from conflict with other valid morals, in every case.
“Stealing is bad” has a basis in Subjective reality, not objective reality.

More often than not the hierarchy of morals has an objective basis too.
Hierarchy of morals? Thats subjective. If morality were objective, hierarchy of morals would be as ridicules as hierarchy of math.


For example almost every culture in the world regards murder as worse than theft. Thats no miracle of randomness or subjectivity. Its based on tried and true observation of how people and societies function.
They subjectively regard murder worse than theft; otherwise you would be able to demonstrate why murder is worse than theft.
 
Upvote 0

durangodawood

Dis Member
Aug 28, 2007
23,602
15,761
Colorado
✟433,247.00
Country
United States
Faith
Seeker
Marital Status
Single
“Stealing is bad” has a basis in Subjective reality, not objective reality....
I explained how "stealing is bad" is based on objective facts.

And your reply is essentially "no its not".

Sorry, but thats not a reasoned response.
 
Upvote 0

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
I explained how "stealing is bad" is based on objective facts.

And your reply is essentially "no its not".

Sorry, but thats not a reasoned response.
What facts did you provide to support your claim that stealing is bad? None.
Did you demonstrate why stealing is objectively bad, which would mean it is bad in all circumstances? No. For something to be objective, means it is based on fact and facts can be demonstrated as true.
All you did was proclaim "stealing is bad" has a basis in objective reality.
Not only did I claim stealing as bad as subjective, but I explained why it is subjective, and provided examples of why it is subjective; examples you neglected to address BTW.
 
Upvote 0

Ed1wolf

Well-Known Member
Dec 26, 2002
2,928
178
South Carolina
✟132,665.00
Country
United States
Faith
Presbyterian
Marital Status
Single
So because you say it, that makes it true huh? No. If you want to make the case that the Universe has a transcendent personal cause, you need to provide evidence to make your case.
Almost all the scientific evidence points to the universe being an effect, therefore according to logic it needs a cause. Since the universe contains purposes, ie such as eyes being for seeing and ears for hearing and we know that only personal intelligent beings have and create purposes, therefore the cause of the universe must be personal. Also we know that only persons can create the personal. Since personal beings exist in the universe, then its cause is most likely a Person.
 
Upvote 0

Ken-1122

Newbie
Jan 30, 2011
13,574
1,790
✟225,690.00
Faith
Atheist
Marital Status
Private
Almost all the scientific evidence points to the universe being an effect, therefore according to logic it needs a cause.
The cause being the singularity that expanded to become the Universe as we know it.
Since the universe contains purposes,
Science does not claim the Universe contain purposes
ie such as eyes being for seeing and ears for hearing and we know that only personal intelligent beings have and create purposes,
No we don’t know that; at least science doesn’t.
therefore the cause of the universe must be personal. Also we know that only persons can create the personal.
Again; we don't know that.
Since personal beings exist in the universe, then its cause is most likely a Person.
All you’ve done is made a bunch of claims with nothing to back it up.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

quatona

"God"? What do you mean??
May 15, 2005
37,512
4,301
✟175,292.00
Faith
Seeker
I explained how "stealing is bad" is based on objective facts.
...and someone else can tell me how "stealing is good", based on objective facts.
Neither your nor their objective facts are disputable.
So I think this whole "based on" in your source wasn´t meant to cover the fact that the determining factor in our ethical judgements is our subjective values and preferences.
 
Upvote 0

stevevw

inquisitive
Nov 4, 2013
12,771
967
Brisbane Qld Australia
✟247,179.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Objective is measurable facts, which means anything objective can be demonstrated as true.
Subjective is based on biases, personal opinions, and interpretations.
If we apply this to morality, Objective morality would be moral claims that can be demonstrated as true. Meaning; (for example) I believe lying is wrong. But can it be demonstrated as wrong? No; my belief is based on personal opinions, and interpretations; because in some cases lying could be the right thing to do (such as saving an innocent persons life) This makes morality subjective.

Subjective vs Objective - Difference and Comparison | Diffen
Just because lying in some cases may be ok does not mean the moral of lying is subjective. Lying is wrong and will always be wrong. But compromises of that moral may be acceptable in certain situations. IE Lying is always wrong accept if it will lead to a bigger moral problem, Lying is always wrong except if it really offends someone etc. But in each of these situations the fact that lying is wrong has not changed it has just had an exception added to it. That is becuase a greater moral wrong will be committed with a lie that may cause harm or hurt. There has not suddenly been a new version of the lying moral added, it is the same moral with a compromise added.

For example Hindues believe that killing a cow is wrong. Now people would say that they have a subjective view of killing cows to the west. But the reason they believe killing a cow is wrong is because that cow may be a reincarnation of a person. So they actually agree with the west that killing a person is wrong. People mistake the different context as being subjective when it is actually the same moral value applied to a different situation.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

GrowingSmaller

Muslm Humanist
Apr 18, 2010
7,421
345
✟49,085.00
Country
United Kingdom
Faith
Humanist
Marital Status
Private
^^No kidding

Back_to_the_Future.jpg
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

stevevw

inquisitive
Nov 4, 2013
12,771
967
Brisbane Qld Australia
✟247,179.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Yes Laws are a compromised version of morality that everybody (most) can agree on. Laws are objective, morality is subjective.
I think you may have contradicted yourself. If laws are underpinned by morals and laws are objective then that would mean morals are objective.

True but with laws, there are enough people in charge that agree with it to make it an enforceable law.
Or maybe laws are the result of people or a society that gets out of control so the powers to be make a law to try and stop that bad behavour. In that sense morals may be the same where despite people saying there are different moral views everyone reacts the same when affected by a breached moral. Therefore peoples reaction reflects the true status of their moral view and everyone reacts the same when they have something taken from them for example.

When personal beliefs, biases, and extenuating circumstances are taken into consideration before determining the moral outcome, that is subjective morality. You are making my point.
How can their moralview be subjective when they still agree that the act is wrong. Just becuase they compromise the moral for that situation does not mean they have a different view of that moral. They still think it is wrong and just allow a compromise just for that one and only situation.

True! But everybody does not follow the same morality that is beyond human views, everybody brings their own set of morals to the table thus subjective morality.
I have to disagree that everyone brings their own set of morals to the table. As mentioned above they may still agree that a moral is wrong but may allow a compromise for that one off or out of the norm situation. They still believe for example killing is wrong 99% of the time. That 1% they may allow a compromise is not a new moral they are bringing to the table when they say it is OK to kill someone in self defense. That 1% is a compromise of the same moral they believe is wrong 99% of the time. So they still agree that killing is wrong. People mistake the 1% compromise as the subjective view and a new moral when its just a rare adjustment of the original moral that remains the same. It cannot be a subjective view because they still agree that killing is wrong.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.