Chris Tan
Active Member
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God prescribed a law atonement forgiveness all throughout the Old Testament, specifically in Leviticus, for various burnt offerings which were according to the manner of the law, and the priest of Israel were instructed to make an atonement for the people for their sin which they had sinned, and this offering and atonement was the instrument to forgive them. Therefore, in the Old Testament, if Israel fulfilled the royal law according to Leviticus scripture for atonement, then they were forgiven through the law.
James 2:8 points out "If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well". James points this out because He knew that if a man fulfilled the royal law according to the scripture, which meant a proper atonement for forgiveness of sins, then that man would be saved, e.g., through that burnt offerings law according to scripture.
All throughout the Old Testament, Israel had an atonement through the law, prescribed in Leviticus, for the forgiveness of sins. Romans 5:13 "For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law" makes it clear that when there was no law, sin was not imputed, men simply followed the law of God revealed in nature.
On the other hand, we learn today more deeply about the law, specifically that "by the law is the knowledge of sin" (Romans 3:20). In Romans, God is disseminating a deeper truth regarding law atonement, which was that He never planned to use the law as an instrument to teach the knowledge of sin; and that "by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight". The reason for this is due to the issue of God's son, who would be the fulfillment of the atonement through the law as prescribed in Leviticus. In Romans 3:19-20 this is initially brought out.
Romans 3:19-20 "Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin"
However, before you give me your yes or no answer, take note of the following, less you blaspheme the Word of God.
"Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:20)
"For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them." (Galatians 3:10-12)
"But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors. For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all." (James 2:9,10)
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