Strathos
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- Dec 11, 2012
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Let's just suppose that it does. Changing a story is not evidence that one is right and the other is wrong. It's just evidence that the story was changed.
No, but it does prove that the Muslim claim that the pre-Koran scriptures were all distorted/corrupted is false.
Well, who can decide that the Dead Sea Scrolls and other ancient Hebrew texts are correct? I am sure that you know about how there were many forgeries written in that time. A group of people decided which ones were right and wrong, but unless those people were perfect they could easily make mistakes in this regard. So, if some of the texts within the Bible are wrong and we search for texts that match up with those texts, then the texts that match up are also probably wrong.
For all you know, the Muslims have it right. They corrected what was wrong with the Bible.
The point was that the Koran and Muslims claim something (the texts had changed significantly since they were first written, in certain specific ways) which we know to not be true.
From my opening post:
Let's say we have a historical event, for example, World War II.
Now there are several books about World War II, which all basically agree on the events and details, and were written during or shortly after the events in question.
Then you have another book, which was written several hundred years after World War II, when no one living remembers it, and no direct records survive. This book states several things that are in complete contradiction to the previously known facts (for example, it might say something like the Americans and Germans were allied against the Russians and Japanese). The authors and supporters of this book say that all of those previous books are wrong, and their version tells what really happened.
Which one would you find to be more reliable?
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