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quatona

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well we need some guidance as to what is out there as far as laws. For example we may inherently know things, but not know how to exercise them.
I still haven´t understood what leads you to the conclusion that feelings common to all or most people point to there being "laws out there". Your line of reasoning strikes me as circular.
But again why is it even recommended to NOT inconvenience people?
Because inconveniences are, well, inconvenient, (and "inconvenience" is defined by its undesirability). Not sure why this requires any further explanation.
Why do we know unwritten laws if they are unwritten?
In order to make this a worthwhile question, you would first have to establish that these are "unwritten laws". In your posts, your previous premises appear later as your conclusions, and vice versa.
 
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KCfromNC

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Elioenai26

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This sounds like you're repeating Lane Craig, so I'll need to highlight this.

Yes you are correct. Dr. William Lane Craig is Research Professor of Philosophy at Talbot School of Theology in La Mirada, California.

At the age of sixteen as a junior in high school, he first heard the message of the Christian gospel and yielded his life to Christ. Dr. Craig pursued his undergraduate studies at Wheaton College (B.A. 1971) and graduate studies at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School (M.A. 1974; M.A. 1975), the University of Birmingham (England) (Ph.D. 1977), and the University of Munich (Germany) (D.Theol. 1984). From 1980-86 he taught Philosophy of Religion at Trinity, during which time he and Jan started their family. In 1987 they moved to Brussels, Belgium, where he pursued research at the University of Louvain until assuming his position at Talbot in 1994.

He has authored or edited over thirty books, including The Kalam Cosmological Argument; Assessing the New Testament Evidence for the Historicity of the Resurrection of Jesus; Divine Foreknowledge and Human Freedom; Theism, Atheism and Big Bang Cosmology; and God, Time and Eternity, as well as over a hundred articles in professional journals of philosophy and theology, including The Journal of Philosophy, New Testament Studies, Journal for the Study of the New Testament, American Philosophical Quarterly, Philosophical Studies, Philosophy, and British Journal for Philosophy of Science.

I make use of much of his research as well as many other notable apologists such as Dr. Ravi Zacharias, Dr. John Lennox, Josh McDowell, Norman Geisler and further. I make use of their wealth of knowledge and experience on matters pertaining to this discussion. They are more experienced than I am and I am greatly humbled to be their fellow worker in so important a cause as the defense of the Christian faith.
Merely constructing a logical argument is trivial.

Constructing a SOUND argument is something else.

Pointing this out as if it were some bonus is like expecting someone to rate your argument better because it is composed of words.

A logical argument is a sound argument. So if a logical argument is constructed, it will be sound. That is one of the qualifications of a logical argument.

Except people don't generally believe both premises.

The Nazis believed what they were doing was right. Ergo, it's not objective that the Nazi holocaust was wrong. Nor was it generally held at the time that it was wrong - there was a lot of anti-Semitism broiling at that time, and lots of Nazi sympathisers. You can try and detract from this by appealing to objectivity as not-opinion dependent, but what else exactly do we have other than that?

Are you saying Gadarene, that the Holocaust was not objectively wrong? Are you asserting that the men and women who were responsible for it were not wrong in what they did despite what their opinion of the matter might have been?

Atheists don't believe that a God exists so the first premise is not generally believed either. Or if you want to take a still-religious approach - why specifically YOUR god in the first premise, and not some other?

Atheists comprise an exceptionally minute percentage of the world's population. So even if atheists were to agree with you in your assertion regarding the first premise ( which they do not), to say that they represent a view that is generally believed is incorrect.

Once again, please forgive me im still using my cell phone in making these replies.
 
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Skavau

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Elionei said:
Second, there’s the distinction between being objective or subjective. By “objective” I mean “independent of people’s opinions.” By “subjective” I mean “dependent on people’s opinions.” So to say that there are objective moral values is to say that something is good or bad independent of whatever people think about it. Similarly, to say that we have objective moral duties is to say that certain actions are right or wrong for us regardless of what people think about it. So, for example, to say that the Holocaust was objectively wrong is to say that it was wrong even though the Nazis who carried it out thought that it was right, and it would still have been wrong even if the Nazis had won World War II and succeeded in exterminating or brainwashing everybody who disagreed with them so that everyone believed the Holocaust was right.

With those distinctions in mind, here’s a simple moral argument for God’s existence which is what gradyll was arguing from. It is a tri-premise argument:

‪1.‬ If God does not exist, objective moral values and duties do not exist.
‪2.‬ Objective moral values and duties do exist.
‪3.‬ Therefore, God exists.
As much as theists seem to enjoy saying it so often, there's no reason to believe that objective morals are predicated on the existence of God. It does not even make coherent sense. If indeed certain actions conducted by intelligent agents are wrong in and of themselves regardless of what any of those agents think about those actions or whether they try to justify them then they still remain as of such: wrong. The fact that a supernatural arbiter may or may not exist to enforce said standards is completely irrelevant. It actually raises more questions about the entity than it does about anything else. What role pray tell does a God play in the affirmation of objective reality? How do you know this? So at the very most your first premise is assumed, not argued and even your definition of 'objective' to me appears somewhat lacking.

What does it mean to be 'objectively wrong'? How is this known? Are actions objectively right or wrong based on argument. That is to ask is genocide wrong because of the impact it has on human life or is it wrong just because it is objectively classified as wrong. This is getting into my perspective that the objective vs. subjective issues in morality are a big red herring but it does need to be asked. At the moment you talking about things being 'objectively wrong' are in no greater foundation than there being, say an objectively superior colour.

Now in regards to #2. This is again unargued and just assumed. Most people affirm moral responsibility for themselves and to others but that isn't to say that said moral responsibility is as important to everyone or always takes the same form. It only shows that we have a tendency through both instinct and intellectual and social development to gravitate towards considering others in our actions. It does not show we have "objective moral values and duties".

That's all I think I need to say.
 
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Skavau

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Elioenai26 said:
Atheists comprise an exceptionally minute percentage of the world's population. So even if atheists were to agree with you in your assertion regarding the first premise ( which they do not), to say that they represent a view that is generally believed is incorrect.
This is irrelevant. You're addressing atheists and non-theists with your arguments are you not? I would wager most atheists would deny or query at least one of your premises for arguing God.
 
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Gadarene

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Links are fine.

A logical argument is a sound argument. So if a logical argument is constructed, it will be sound. That is one of the qualifications of a logical argument.

Er....no. Logically valid arguments are merely internally consistent. Sound arguments have internal consistency and valid premises. Merely saying "what's remarkable is my argument is internally consistent" is little more than an attempt to make his argument seem more remarkable than it actually is. The very minimum I expect from someone like Craig is an internally consistent argument.

The argument "William Lane Craig is a Christian apologist, Christian apologists are doodooheads, therefore William Lane Craig is a doodoohead" is perfectly logical, but its premises are not valid, so it is not a sound argument.

The issue is whether premises 1 and 2 are correct, which is dubious, so no, his argument is not necessarily sound.

Are you saying Gadarene, that the Holocaust was not objectively wrong? Are you asserting that the men and women who were responsible for it were not wrong in what they did despite what their opinion of the matter might have been?

I'm saying that the statement "the Holocaust was wrong" is arguably as much a matter of opinion as the statement that it is right. It's just an opinion that is very widely held. Just because something is subjective doesn't mean it's not commonplace.

Atheists comprise an exceptionally minute percentage of the world's population. So even if atheists were to agree with you in your assertion regarding the first premise ( which they do not), to say that they represent a view that is generally believed is incorrect.

Perhaps. Either way, it's still a fallacious attempt at justification of the premise, which has already been pointed out.
 
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Dave Ellis

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I can see this conversation is going is circles. Now it's not as much about the cutting in line as it is the inconvenience. Why is it taught that we should not inconvenience each other?



The only reason this conversation is going in circles, is because I'm addressing your question, then you come back and ask the exact same question. What is it you're not getting?

We are empathic. We know we don't like to be inconvenienced, so we understand others don't want to be inconvenienced either.

We understand inconveniencing others, like cutting in line, will draw their annoyance or anger.

Most people feel some sense of embarrassment or guilt for cutting in line, we know by cutting in line, we are doing to someone else something we would find annoying. That makes us equate ourselves to the annoying jackass who cut in line in front of us last week. That's not a good feeling, so we avoid it.

We therefore understand the fair thing to do, is to go to the back of the line, like everyone else did.
 
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Elioenai26

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Thank you Skavau for taking the time to reply to my post. I thank you for doing so in an amicable fashion and I shall do my best to respond to your posts in the same fashion.

As much as theists seem to enjoy saying it so often, there's no reason to believe that objective morals are predicated on the existence of God.

Mr. Skavau, in light of the above statement, would you mind telling us what you believe objective morals find their basis in?

If indeed certain actions conducted by intelligent agents are wrong in and of themselves regardless of what any of those agents think about those actions or whether they try to justify them then they still remain as of such: wrong.

I wholeheartedly agree.

The fact that a supernatural arbiter may or may not exist to enforce said standards is completely irrelevant.

Thus far I have not mentioned anything with regards to the enforcement of morality, only the source of it.

It actually raises more questions about the entity than it does about anything else. What role pray tell does a God play in the affirmation of objective reality? How do you know this?

These are very good questions, if you hold to the theistic worldview. If you do not, then these questions would be irrelevant to you and therefore cannot be used as an argument against an entity which you categorically deny as existing.

So at the very most your first premise is assumed, not argued

For any argument to be sound, there are certain qualifications that it must meet. One of these qualifications is that the premises must be shown to be true. The premises have to have some degree of justification or warrant for us to accept them as corresponding to reality. But how much warrant? The premises surely don’t need to be known to be true with certainty (we know almost nothing to be true with certainty!). Perhaps we should say that for an argument to be a good one the premises need to be probably true in light of the evidence. Another way of putting this is that a good argument is a sound argument in which the premises are more plausible in light of the evidence than their opposites. You should compare the premise and its negation and believe whichever one is more plausibly true in light of the evidence. A good argument will be a sound argument whose premises are more plausible than their negations. Now in order for you to show that premise one is simply "assumed" as you put it and is not plausible, the burden falls to you to provide evidence to the contrary and must be sufficient enough to warrant a relinquishing of said premise.

and even your definition of 'objective' to me appears somewhat lacking.

I can give a more in depth definition of objective if you would like. This will not affect the discussion in any way however.

What does it mean to be 'objectively wrong'? How is this known?

Theists argue objective morality proceeds from the nature of the creator, designer, architect, mind that is the cause of existence as we know it. Once again I shall reiterate, I am not arguing for the Judeo-Christian worldview at this point. I am arguing from the theisitc view, under which are many more specific beliefs.

Are actions objectively right or wrong based on argument. That is to ask is genocide wrong because of the impact it has on human life or is it wrong just because it is objectively classified as wrong.

As a theist, I would say both apply. As an atheist, your position does not allow for there to exist such an idea as right or wrong. But I will ask you this: is genocide wrong? It is a simple question.

This is getting into my perspective that the objective vs. subjective issues in morality are a big red herring but it does need to be asked. At the moment you talking about things being 'objectively wrong' are in no greater foundation than there being, say an objectively superior colour.

It needs to be asked because it is fundamental to our discussion. I will show you why:

Lets say you are out in your neighborhood walking your dog, maybe a little dog like a puppy for instance. A young teenager comes up from behind you and hits you in the head with a baseball bat. He then takes your dog and runs away. As he runs off you can see enough of him to give a description to the police. Several days later, he is apprehended and eventually you go to his trial. After the prosecution makes its case which is airtight and solid, the judge pronounces his judgment. "Not guilty". Immediately you are indignant! Through the bandage which is wrapped around your head from the trauma sustained in the assault you yell: "But judge look what he did to me! Look! And I still don't have my dog!" The judge calmy replies: "That young man who you say assaulted you is my son and I simply don't believe he would do something like that. I know him too well. Case dismissed!"

What would your reaction to this be?

Now in regards to #2. This is again unargued and just assumed. Most people affirm moral responsibility for themselves and to others but that isn't to say that said moral responsibility is as important to everyone or always takes the same form. It only shows that we have a tendency through both instinct and intellectual and social development to gravitate towards considering others in our actions. It does not show we have "objective moral values and duties".

I ask again, what would your reaction be?
 
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Elioenai26

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This is irrelevant. You're addressing atheists and non-theists with your arguments are you not? I would wager most atheists would deny or query at least one of your premises for arguing God.

Thank you for the observation. I shall endeavor to clear up any confusion regarding my reply. If you will notice, I addressed my remark towards Gadarene when he made the assertion that: "Atheists don't believe that a God exists so the first premise is not generally believed either."

Gadarene made the above statement in order to prove that premise one was false. However, he failed to understand that atheists constitute approximately 5% of the world's population. So to say that premise one is generally not believed is a claim that is shown to have no support. By definition if something is generally believed it is by a majority, not a minority.

And even if atheists were the majority, we cannot use majority adherence to a worldview to prove that it is true. For example: not too too long ago, it was generally believed that the world was flat! Of course this does not mean that the world was truly flat does it?
 
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Gadarene

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Thank you for the observation. I shall endeavor to clear up any confusion regarding my reply. If you will notice, I addressed my remark towards Gadarene when he made the assertion that: "Atheists don't believe that a God exists so the first premise is not generally believed either."

Gadarene made the above statement in order to prove that premise one was false. However, he failed to understand that atheists constitute approximately 5% of the world's population. So to say that premise one is generally not believed is false. By definition if something is generally believed it is by a majority, not a minority.

And even if atheists were the majority, we cannot use majority adherence to a worldview to prove that it is true. For example: not too too long ago, it was generally believed that the world was flat! Of course this does not mean that the world was truly flat does it?

Bingo!

So your justification for the first two premises fails also. All you did was appeal to the majority view.
 
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Dave Ellis

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With those distinctions in mind, here’s a simple moral argument for God’s existence which is what gradyll was arguing from. It is a tri-premise argument:

‪1.‬ If God does not exist, objective moral values and duties do not exist.
‪2.‬ Objective moral values and duties do exist.
‪3.‬ Therefore, God exists.

Premises 1 and 2

What makes this argument so compelling is not only that it is logically airtight but also that people generally believe both premises.


This is far from a logically air-tight argument, and I don't find it compelling at all.... in fact it's very easily blown out of the water.

1.‬ If God does not exist, objective moral values and duties do not exist.

How can you justify this argument? You can not demonstrate that objective morals must by definition come from a God. God is only one idea of where an objective moral standard could originate. It's possible that if objective morals do in fact exist, they could have originated from another source, perhaps one we are not even aware of yet.

This premise is not logically sound, and is based simply on assertion. You must demonstrate this point to be true, in order to use it as a premise.

2.‬ Objective moral values and duties do exist.

Again, this is a simple assertion. You have not demonstrated that Objective moral values do indeed exist, and in fact all the evidence shows that moral values are subjective and change over time within a society.

Since this premise also is built on opinion, and not on demonstrable fact, it has no use in a logically sound argument trying to prove what is actually factual.

3. Therefore, God Exists.

I will grant you that if premise one and two were indeed correct, this premise would work. However, since premise three is dependent upon the first two premises, and those have been shown to be flawed.... this premise as well, is flawed.


Just because many people believe premises one and two, does not make them true. You must demonstrate without a shadow of a doubt that both premises 1 and 2 are correct... you have failed to do that so far.

If you can do that, I'm all ears.... however, until that point, this argument is logically unsound, and built simply off opinion, and not on fact. I have no reason to accept any part of this argument at all.
 
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Elioenai26

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Links are fine.

I thank you for bearing patiently with me. I will admit upfront that much of my research is not mine. I must give credit where it is due. There are many who have come before me that have labored and made it possible for young apologists like myself to follow in their shoes. However, I shall limit my referencing other people's work directly when at all possible.


Er....no. Logically valid arguments are merely internally consistent. Sound arguments have internal consistency and valid premises. Merely saying "what's remarkable is my argument is internally consistent" is little more than an attempt to make his argument seem more remarkable than it actually is. The very minimum I expect from someone like Craig is an internally consistent argument.

The argument "William Lane Craig is a Christian apologist, Christian apologists are doodooheads, therefore William Lane Craig is a doodoohead" is perfectly logical, but its premises are not valid, so it is not a sound argument.

I will concede to you on this point. It is sufficient for the matter at hand to know how to correctly define the terms we will be commonly using. Thank you.

The issue is whether premises 1 and 2 are correct, which is dubious, so no, his argument is not necessarily sound.

The validity and truthfulness of the first premise must be shown to be unsound and not true in order for your statement to cohere.

I'm saying that the statement "the Holocaust was wrong" is arguably as much a matter of opinion as the statement that it is right. It's just an opinion that is very widely held.

Ok, now I shall humbly and sincerely ask you, according to what you have written, are you asserting that the malevolence of the Holocaust is a matter of opinion. Is this your assertion?

Just because something is subjective doesn't mean it's not commonplace.

On this point we agree completely.
 
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Dave Ellis

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Yes you are correct. Dr. William Lane Craig is Research Professor of Philosophy at Talbot School of Theology in La Mirada, California.

At the age of sixteen as a junior in high school, he first heard the message of the Christian gospel and yielded his life to Christ. Dr. Craig pursued his undergraduate studies at Wheaton College (B.A. 1971) and graduate studies at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School (M.A. 1974; M.A. 1975), the University of Birmingham (England) (Ph.D. 1977), and the University of Munich (Germany) (D.Theol. 1984). From 1980-86 he taught Philosophy of Religion at Trinity, during which time he and Jan started their family. In 1987 they moved to Brussels, Belgium, where he pursued research at the University of Louvain until assuming his position at Talbot in 1994.

He has authored or edited over thirty books, including The Kalam Cosmological Argument; Assessing the New Testament Evidence for the Historicity of the Resurrection of Jesus; Divine Foreknowledge and Human Freedom; Theism, Atheism and Big Bang Cosmology; and God, Time and Eternity, as well as over a hundred articles in professional journals of philosophy and theology, including The Journal of Philosophy, New Testament Studies, Journal for the Study of the New Testament, American Philosophical Quarterly, Philosophical Studies, Philosophy, and British Journal for Philosophy of Science.

I make use of much of his research as well as many other notable apologists such as Dr. Ravi Zacharias, Dr. John Lennox, Josh McDowell, Norman Geisler and further. I make use of their wealth of knowledge and experience on matters pertaining to this discussion. They are more experienced than I am and I am greatly humbled to be their fellow worker in so important a cause as the defense of the Christian faith.


Unfortunately, most of Dr Craig's work, including Kalam has been debunked over and over again. I have no doubt he's highly educated, however, he is also wrong in his beliefs.



A logical argument is a sound argument. So if a logical argument is constructed, it will be sound. That is one of the qualifications of a logical argument.

A logical argument is not always a sound argument. You can make a logical argument, however if the premises you use are not backed up with fact, it's not sound.... even if the argument logically flows.

Are you saying Gadarene, that the Holocaust was not objectively wrong? Are you asserting that the men and women who were responsible for it were not wrong in what they did despite what their opinion of the matter might have been?

No, it wasn't objectively wrong.

Just so there's no misunderstanding, It was wrong... but it's not wrong because of some mystical universal law, it's wrong because it violates the values commonly held by most people.


Atheists comprise an exceptionally minute percentage of the world's population. So even if atheists were to agree with you in your assertion regarding the first premise ( which they do not), to say that they represent a view that is generally believed is incorrect.

Once again, please forgive me im still using my cell phone in making these replies.


The appeal to popularity is a logical fallacy... Just because many people hold a view, does not make that view correct. Following the same argument, it's possible that a minority of people actually are factually correct versus the majority in their opinions.
 
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Elioenai26

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Bingo!

So your justification for the first two premises fails also. All you did was appeal to the majority view.

In presenting this argument, I have no where appealed to or alluded to a majority adherence = truth claim. In fact I have shown how this is not the method to be used when ascertaining truth.

In fact, the veracity and truthfulness of premise one should be self-evident to a well informed atheist. If you would like me to, I can supply you with some writings and quotes from notable atheistic scientists to support this.
 
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Elioenai26

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This is far from a logically air-tight argument, and I don't find it compelling at all.... in fact it's very easily blown out of the water.

1.‬ If God does not exist, objective moral values and duties do not exist.

How can you justify this argument? You can not demonstrate that objective morals must by definition come from a God. God is only one idea of where an objective moral standard could originate. It's possible that if objective morals do in fact exist, they could have originated from another source, perhaps one we are not even aware of yet.

This premise is not logically sound, and is based simply on assertion. You must demonstrate this point to be true, in order to use it as a premise.

This is a premise Mr. Ellis and as such, the premise needs to be probably true in light of the evidence. Another way of putting this is that a good argument is a sound argument in which the premises are more plausible in light of the evidence than their opposites. You should compare the premise and its negation and believe whichever one is more plausibly true in light of the evidence. A good argument will be a sound argument whose premises are more plausible than their negations.



2.‬ Objective moral values and duties do exist.

Again, this is a simple assertion. You have not demonstrated that Objective moral values do indeed exist, and in fact all the evidence shows that moral values are subjective and change over time within a society.

Let me see if I can make this clearer to you. What if there were a global economic meltdown and social turmoil ensued so that robbing people at gunpoint to get food became common place. Robbery would then be a social norm. Would such a norm be wrong? If it is not wrong, then you affirm situational ethics or as you put it "subjective" morality. Now the only question is: would you have anything to say if you were robbed at gunpoint while taking food home to your family?

Just because many people believe premises one and two, does not make them true. You must demonstrate without a shadow of a doubt that both premises 1 and 2 are correct... you have failed to do that so far.

This is where you misunderstand and therefore are not able to fully appreciate this argument. In logical argumentation, it is not necessary for a premise to be empirically proven "beyond a shadow of a doubt". Any philosopher professor will tell you this. It is a common mistake to think in these terms but it is incorrect. I have briefly given the qualifications of an acceptable premise. Please refer to them.
 
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Dave Ellis

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If it's ok, I'm going to jump in on a couple points you made in your reply to Skavau.

TMr. Skavau, in light of the above statement, would you mind telling us what you believe objective morals find their basis in?

It's not up to him to determine where objective morals come from.... you made the argument that they come from God, so it's up to you to demonstrate your claim.

These are very good questions, if you hold to the theistic worldview. If you do not, then these questions would be irrelevant to you and therefore cannot be used as an argument against an entity which you categorically deny as existing.

It's not irrelevant by any means. If you can answer those questions and demonstrate your answers are correct... that would shift the worldview of any Atheist that reads it. If you can demonstrate that objective morality exists, and God has a hand in it.... then obviously God exists.

Answering this question is far from irrelevant... in fact it's a game changer in both science and philosophy. The proven existence of God could very well be the most important fact discovered in human history, if true.

For any argument to be sound, there are certain qualifications that it must meet. One of these qualifications is that the premises must be shown to be true. The premises have to have some degree of justification or warrant for us to accept them as corresponding to reality. But how much warrant? The premises surely don’t need to be known to be true with certainty (we know almost nothing to be true with certainty!). Perhaps we should say that for an argument to be a good one the premises need to be probably true in light of the evidence. Another way of putting this is that a good argument is a sound argument in which the premises are more plausible in light of the evidence than their opposites. You should compare the premise and its negation and believe whichever one is more plausibly true in light of the evidence. A good argument will be a sound argument whose premises are more plausible than their negations. Now in order for you to show that premise one is simply "assumed" as you put it and is not plausible, the burden falls to you to provide evidence to the contrary and must be sufficient enough to warrant a relinquishing of said premise.

Yes and No.

I agree that many things we can't be 100% certain about, however for us to accept them as fact we must have overwhelming evidence in support of that idea.

The problem is, the premises on which you base your argument are not plausible, and in fact have no demonstrable evidence to back them at all. That therefore makes them very unlikely to be true.

The burden does not fall on us to provide evidence in contrary to your premise, when you have taken no steps to justify your own argument. If you put forward an argument with no evidence to back it, by definition is is simply an assumed assertion.

In the words of Christopher Hitchens... That can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.

And that's exactly what we're doing.


Theists argue objective morality proceeds from the nature of the creator, designer, architect, mind that is the cause of existence as we know it. Once again I shall reiterate, I am not arguing for the Judeo-Christian worldview at this point. I am arguing from the theisitc view, under which are many more specific beliefs.

And what is your justification for holding those beliefs?


As a theist, I would say both apply. As an atheist, your position does not allow for there to exist such an idea as right or wrong. But I will ask you this: is genocide wrong? It is a simple question.

This is simply incorrect... Atheists have as much of a sense of right and wrong as Theists do. We just don't attribute it to the same thing you do.

As for Genocide... Yes, I believe Genocide is wrong under all possible circumstances. And again, that's not because of a mystical universal law.

On that note, if morality is objective, and genocide therefore is universally immoral.... The Christian God is demonstrably immoral, as he directly orders multiple genocides in the bible.

Examples of this are: The extermination of the tribe of Benjamin, the conquest of Canaan, The Passover story (all firstborns in Egypt were slaughtered) and Noah's Flood... which if true is the worst genocide in human history by a landslide.

If genocide is objectively wrong, then your God is demonstrably the most immoral being in history.

If you come back with the "God's plan" argument, or that God works in mysterious ways.... then the genocides he committed were not wrong, and therefore can not be called objectively immoral.


It needs to be asked because it is fundamental to our discussion. I will show you why:

Lets say you are out in your neighborhood walking your dog, maybe a little dog like a puppy for instance. A young teenager comes up from behind you and hits you in the head with a baseball bat. He then takes your dog and runs away. As he runs off you can see enough of him to give a description to the police. Several days later, he is apprehended and eventually you go to his trial. After the prosecution makes its case which is airtight and solid, the judge pronounces his judgment. "Not guilty". Immediately you are indignant! Through the bandage which is wrapped around your head from the trauma sustained in the assault you yell: "But judge look what he did to me! Look! And I still don't have my dog!" The judge calmy replies: "That young man who you say assaulted you is my son and I simply don't believe he would do something like that. I know him too well. Case dismissed!"

What would your reaction to this be?

I'd say it was a biased judge who failed to look at the evidence. I'd be filing a complaint and appealing.... how is this really relevant though?
 
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quatona

"God"? What do you mean??
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With those distinctions in mind, here’s a simple moral argument for God’s existence which is what gradyll was arguing from. It is a tri-premise argument:

‪1.‬ If God does not exist, objective moral values and duties do not exist.
‪2.‬ Objective moral values and duties do exist.
‪3.‬ Therefore, God exists.
[This appears not to be a tri-premise argument, but a syllogism, i.e. two premises and one conclusion ("therefore").]

1 is not a premise but a in itself a complex statement in which some logical steps appear to be missing. Personally, I am not understanding how this if-then progression follows.
2 is a statement that is (as countless threads here demonstrate) very much in dispute. Personally, I don´t think that objective moral values and duties do exist. "Objective morality" is an oxymoron, in my opinion.

If your premises ignore and/or violate the very positions of those persons you are trying to convince (and, on top, are lacking any substantiation), your argument is likely to be downright rejected. The fact that your conclusion (3) may logically follow from your premises does not affect this problem.



What makes this argument so compelling is not only that it is logically airtight but also that people generally believe both premises.
If people would generally believe both premises we wouldn´t have these discussions.
 
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