Before I get into why I believe the 10 commandments are still valid today I would like to point out that the 10 commandments were written in love not out of legal action. Grace is not a concept just for the new testament but also exist in the old testament on many occasions. Jesus said if you love him you will keep his commandments.
The ten commandments would be valid for today for the sole purpose of condemnation for those who remain under the jurisdiction of that covenant. For, as
Romans 2:12 says,
For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law.
I'm a Gentile, in that first category, who would have been destined to perish without hope (as
Ephesians 2:11-16 explains).
For those who are in the law of that covenant,
Romans 3:19 settles their future:
Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Granted, there isn't anyone saved outside of grace, and that has always been true. I can't for the life of me understand why you think grace mandates a disposition of "guilty before God" and slap a label that says "love" on it. Grace and law are antithetical, as apparent in
John 1:17:
For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
One of the facts in the Bible that is clear is that the 10 commandments never never went away. Ask yourself, does God change? What does the Bible say?
Let's test that theory:
1 Peter 1:18-21
18 Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
20
Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,
21 Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.
Yes, you're right - God has never changed His intent to redeem man by His own shed Blood. Is that true of His covenant, which is His
creation, and needs to be understood as separate from the Sovereign
Creator?
No. Please explain all the changes and nullifications and placing the law in the past tense as presented in
Hebrews 7:12-28, identified in the next chapter as the covenant given at Sinai, the ten commandments.
So if God does not change why would he change his laws?
You do realize the specific law you're talking about is His covenant given at Sinai, don't you (
Deuteronomy 4:13)
What does this passage mean from
Hebrews 10:9?
Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
What is the 'first'?
What is the 'second'?
What is the disposition of the 'first'?
The 10 commandments were the only laws that were written in stone by gods own finger! With that said, many people think the law of god did not exist until it was given to moses on tables of stone on Mount Sinai. The reason why god wrote the laws on table of stone is because that people broke the laws written in there heart. Therefore, God reinstated the laws that were written in there heart on to tables of stone.
Scripture, please? Where oh where does the Bible ever tell you that the law was written in anyone's heart prior to the new covenant?
And, how do you reconcile this alleged pre-existence with the testimony Moses gave, that the previous generation didn't have this covenant in
Deuteronomy 5:2-3?
2 The LORD our God made a covenant with us in Horeb.
3
The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day.
Before Sinai it was wrong to steal, it was wrong to murder, it was wrong to commit adultery.
In Romans 15 it states where there is no law there is no transgression. If you do away with the law of God you do away with transgression. If you look at the definition of transgression
So we know that transgression is the breaking of the law. If you look at 1 John 3:4 you got:
Romans 5:13
For
until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
To put it plainly, Sin is breaking Gods law. If there was no law there would be no transgression and as a result no sin. But God made it clear that it was wrong to murder and commit adultery etc.. before it was written in stone on Mount Sinai. After all, even Abraham who existed before Moses kept Gods commandments.
What were God's commandments to Abraham?
Circumcision? Packing bags and leaving Ur of the Chaldees?
Not the ten commandments, which would not exist for another 430 years:
Galatians 3:17-18
17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ,
the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.
18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.
See its not about weather you think its correct or not to steal. It is a sin because Gods law states it is. Remember, as Christians we are suppose to follow the footsteps of Jesus. Jesus upheld the claims of law in his own life.
Have you never perceived
why Jesus followed the law as He did?
Galatians 4:4-5
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5
To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Jesus took the law written on tables of stone and put them into human flesh.
Wrong. The law written into our hearts and minds is qualified by these words in
Hebrews 8:9:
Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt.
That covenant made at Sinai was the ten commandments, and it doesn't go into our hearts. This statement is verbatim from Jeremiah's prophecy.
I wrote more detail on this very topic in the denomination-specific theology area, in a post entitled
God replaces the schoolmaster, please peruse at your pleasure (the link should take you directly to it).
Jesus himself said:
Matthew 5:17
Jesus said himself that he did not come to destroy it. If he did not destroy it where did it go? What about fulfill? Many think that fulfill means that the law is abolished now since it was fulfilled. The definition of fulfill is not that friend.
4137
pleroo
from 4134; TDNT-6:286,867; v
AV-fulfil 51, fill 19, be full 7, complete 2, end 2, misc 9; 90
1)
to make full, to fill up, i.e. to fill to the full
1a) to cause to abound, to furnish or supply liberally
1a1) I abound, I am liberally supplied
2) to render full, i.e.
to complete
2a) to fill to the top: so that nothing shall be wanting to full measure, fill to the brim
2b) to consummate: a number
2b1)
to make complete in every particular, to render perfect
2b2) to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking)
Never use Google in lieu of a decent lexicon, please.
Fulfill = propitiation, a full expiatory sacrifice that satisfied the mandates of the law - that's just from memory.
Romans 3:23-28
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being
justified freely by his grace through the
redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
25 Whom God hath set forth to be
a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
28
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
Please get back to me on
Hebrews 10:9.
Victor