Victor, many people today are interested in honoring a tradition instead of following the reality of the Bible. Almost all churches are guilty of this to some extent. Examples are celebrating Christmas on Dec 25th and putting up Christmas trees, Birthdays, and worshiping on Sunday in place of the Sabbath. No where in the Bible do you see support to do any of the above but yet some of us Christians still do these very things.
Certainly there are far too many manmade traditions that are in practice, and this is nothing new. I see evidence of it all the time, and it manifests itself even now with the notion that there is a sabbath ordinance present today, and some have even taken this non-existent sabbath and claim it now to be on Sunday.
Jeremiah 16:19
O LORD, my strength, and my fortress, and my refuge in the day of affliction, the Gentiles shall come unto thee from the ends of the earth, and shall say, Surely our fathers have inherited lies, vanity, and things wherein there is no profit.
This was the case many years ago when Jesus challenged the Israelites to think outside their reality. As we all know, the Jewish folks accepted some parts of scripture but ignored other parts. They followed their tradition over what was written in the Bible. Had they taken into account all of prophecy, they might have been able to realize that their Messiah has already come. However, because of the hardness of their hearts, some missed out on their salvation.
You seem to think that this surprised God. It didn't. As
Romans 11:7-8 explains,
7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
8 According as it is written,
God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear; unto this day.
This chapter explains that through the disobedience of Israel, salvation has become available to the Gentiles. Very simply, as
Romans 11:32 concludes,
For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all. This isn't disobedience on the part of those who rejected Messiah, but
all, including those who
have obtained salvation.
Its a good thing we can read all of scripture and not ignore certain parts. Romans: 2:14-15:
What does it say? It says since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their heart. What requirements?
What law is "written" in the Gentiles?
Romans 2:14 is very plain that the Gentiles do not have the law! It was from verse 12 previous to this that Paul asserted that the Gentiles would perish without the law. It should have become apparent to you that the "requirements of the law" were not sufficient to permit the Gentiles a
relationship with God that would provide their salvation.
The same requirements that Jesus fulfilled.
If the
requirements are fulfilled in Messiah, what is left that is dependent on your performance?
Is your salvation dependent on your performance (and God has already called you disobedient), or is God's performance sufficient?
What law did Jesus follow during his life? The 10 commandments.
Only ten commandments? It may have been a while since you've stepped inside a kosher home.
More important is
why did Jesus comply with the law? Very simply, He Who was above the law (
Galatians 4:1) submitted Himself to the law for a purpose. As
Galatians 4:4-5 summarizes:
4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5
To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Salvation is dependent on adoption, not performance of your dead works.
Perhaps it wasn't apparent that redemption extracted those under the law, placed in the past-tense by the use of "were".
Indeed, the world is in fact guilty. Why are we guilty? Because we break the law. The law that is written in our hearts and the Jews who continue to follow the old covenant. How else can the world be guilty before God if they weren't violating the law given to them by God. Thats the very definition of Sin. But again your focusing on grace. Does grace mean that we can do whatever we want? Can we now murder, commit adultery, steal, covet another mans wife etc?? What does the Bible say about grace?
You skipped the very passage that addresses this, as Paul had encountered that very argument before.
Romans 3:7-9
7 For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?
8 And not rather, as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,
Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just.
9
What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin...
Liberty isn't a license to do evil.
Perhaps you should consider that the argument you just used was grounds for Paul to declare that
your condemnation is justified.
Then you can explain why we, the redeemed, aren't any better than those deserving damnation.
At the very least, you should never use this approach again.
In and though all of this, the Scripture I presented to you has gone unanswered. As
Romans 3:19 concludes,
Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
The law isn't addressing the world in general; the Gentiles were condemned in the previous chapter for the reason they didn't have a covenant relationship with God.
This verse is addressing those under the Mosaic covenant, the ten commandments, and leaves you
guilty before God.
That is the Scripture, not manmade tradition.
This verse is just prior to the passages explaining justification by "propitiation through faith in his blood" (
Romans 3:25) and concludes
His righteousness apart from the law.
Great, righteousness, that is being made right w/ God comes through faith in Jesus Christ. What does faith in Jesus Christ bring though? Id do what the bible says here.
Romans 3:31:Seems clear to me there! Nothing can be clearer then what Paul says in that one passage alone. We uphold the law.
We have seen theology via soundbites out of their context many times, and this is such an example. This statement leads into these verses:
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
1 ¶ What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory;
but not before God.
3 For
what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man,
unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8
Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
"Upholding the law" is used to justify these statements asserting the imputation of righteousness
without the law that are contained in the writings of the law.
What the law this passage is referring to is the law created in ordinances. Not the 10 commandments. In fact, Hebrews 7:18 is clear about why these laws are set aside. When referring to the law(ordinance) about priests being delivered only from the tribe of Levi it says,
Hebrews 7:18:
Why was it set aside? Because it was weak and useless. I would hardly argue that any of the 10 commandments are weak and useless. Paul is very consistent in the things he says.
Once again, I am glad we can read all of scripture and not follow what tickles our ears. If you continue to read Paul establishes what the first covenant hes referring to is.
I agree that you and I should not abide by ticklish soundbites; I hope you don't mind my observation that this is precisely what you have done. You can argue that the author (we can't assert that it is Paul) isn't calling the ten commandments "weak and useless", but that isn't according to the Scriptures. I had pointed out in my last post "Please explain all the changes and nullifications and placing the law in the past tense as presented in Hebrews 7:12-28, identified in the next chapter as the covenant given at Sinai, the ten commandments.
Look at the context:
Hebrews 8:6-13
6 ¶ But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.
10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
This passage asserts that there is a better covenant to replace the faulty old one that came from Sinai. It also says that the law written into us isn't according to that previous covenant, and has the result of knowing the Author without any more need to receive instruction. This doesn't fit the description of a written ordinance, which is incapable of this set goal. This passage concludes that the covenant that came from Sinai is decaying and is ready to vanish away.
What was that covenant from Sinai?
Deuteronomy 4:12-13
12 And the LORD spake unto you out of the midst of the fire: ye heard the voice of the words, but saw no similitude; only ye heard a voice.
13 And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone.
It is from that foundation that two chapters later Hebrews 10:9 states:
Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
continued in part 2