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Renton405
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I know, we've just about beat this into the ground.But, I have some questions and instead of further confusing another OP, I decided to start my own.
If you are tired of the topic or feel the discussion is fruitless, feel free not to participate.![]()
I've never really gotten into a real in depth discussion on this subject. Because of this I'm sure the information I am looking for has been given here but I've missed it.![]()
So, with all of that said. Here are my questions. How do proponents of Mary's Perpetual Virginity explain away these verses:
Matt 1:24; Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
Matt 1:25; And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
This is quite a heavy indication that once Jesus was born, Mary and Joseph came together as husband and wife. I admit it is not definitive evidence, so please explain how we can infer that they NEVER came together as husband and wife.
Second are these verses:
Matt 13:55; Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?
Matt 13:56; And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this [man] all these things?
Okay, I'm do know that the argument has to do with the word used for "brethren, brothers and sisters." So explain to me what this argument entails. Is the word used the only word that would work in these verses? Is there only one word that identifies "brothers/sisters/cousins?" If not, what other word would work? Does the Catholic bible use a different word?
Anyhow, participate if you wish or ignore the post if you prefer . . . . .![]()
You need to read more on early christianity. Brothers and sisters said in those days meant alot of different meanings than what people would think today..
Read the protoevanglium of james of you want outer evidence.
Read up on the miracle at Fatima. And then ask yourself. Can 70,000 people ALL be wrong??
As well as the hundreds upon hundreds of Early Church Fathers who claimed she was a virgin her whole life..
A virgin is more purer than a non virgin. Since God is the purest of all it is natural he would chose a virgin..A non-virgin does not go well with Gods ultimate majesty and pure grace. For God to bear his son, it would be natural for God to chose the most pure, faithful woman he can. Ask yourself, why did God chose Mary??
If Mary really had other children, they would have been followed by the early fathers. And the church would have recorded it. Yet there is not one recording of a blood line son or daughter of Mary. Not one. Don't you think if mary had children the early church fathers/apostles would have come in contact with them and recorded it??...However there is much evidence claiming otherwise in scripture and outside scripture(protoevangelium)..The evidence outweighs the claim..
Read Matthew 1:23
BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL," which translated means, "GOD WITH US.
THE virgin..
The messiah will be born of a virgin in bethlehem. Period.
EVEN IF it could be proven that Mary had no other children (and it cannot), that does NOT prove at all that she never shared marital intimacies
jOSIAH! It it proven that the BIBLE DOES NOT SAY ANYTHING ABOUT MARY LOSING HER VIRGINITY!! Yet you claim sola scriptura, the sole authority. Since the bible says nothing about Mary being married again or losing her virginity then it goes in accordance with Sola Scriptura. And yet you say this, that maybe OUTSIDE SCRIPTURE that something about Mary could be true?? hmmmm... It sounds like you use sola scriptura when you can when supporting a interperatation of yours, but when something like this arises you take a 360 on the sola scriptura theory..
And one last thing:
Why did Jesus while he was hanging on the cross say to John to take Mary in as his Mother?? Surely if Mary had other siblings he wouldn't have said this..
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