Is it the law of Moses or the Law of God through Moses? I mean did Moses write it without revelation from God?
What about Yeshua? Is what He said and taught not from the Father?
Tkjcc from what you believe you have condemned our Lord and Savior as a false prophet according to God's own words.
Marc
How dare you!!!
Is it the law of Moses or the Law of God through Moses? I mean did Moses write it without revelation from God?
You still don't get it do you? No wonder Jesus talked in parables. Blind and deaf people can't let go of their traditions.
You can copy and paste stuff, define stuff, but you still don't understand this? How the word you are LOOKING FOR, isn't there? IT is another word, which if that is what they wanted to say, they would have used it. But still, if that WAS the word they wanted to use and the meaning just so happens to be the same, IT WAS FOR THE JEWS. But I still UNDERSTAND IT.
What about Yeshua? Is what He said and taught not from the Father?
Yes, The Father spoke through Him, as they are 1.
Tkjcc from what you believe you have condemned our Lord and Savior as a false prophet according to God's own words.
I should not even dignify this with a statement, but even Jesus was called the devil, so I should expect this.
Better had watch the tone though, you are verging on blasphemy.
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