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SteveCaruso

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Between 200 BC and 100 AD the Hebrew language changed, but not all at once. We know what the Hebrew vowels were by Hebrew being translated into other languages.

That's what Secunda is. It does not support your assertion. It clearly shows that the theophoric prefix was "y(eh)o-". :)
 
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SteveCaruso

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And that is your opinion.

Then it is the opinion of every published Hebrew grammar and everyone who can read and write in Classical Hebrew.

'Ayin is a voiced glottal stop.

It is not a vowel.

To call it a vowel in this context is categorically, unequivocally false.

It does not appear in the Tetragrammaton. (The only letters present there are yod, he [x2], and waw/vav).

These statements are all verifiable, fundamental facts.

Why do you deny fact in order to prop up such obvious fiction? What merit is fiction here? What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
 
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visionary

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Then it is the opinion of every published Hebrew grammar and everyone who can read and write in Classical Hebrew. 'Ayin is a voiced glottal stop.
It is not a vowel. To call it a vowel in this context is categorically, unequivocally false. It does not appear in the Tetragrammaton. (The only letters present there are yod, he [x2], and waw/vav). These statements are all verifiable, fundamental facts. Why do you deny fact in order to prop up such obvious fiction? What merit is fiction here? What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
It is hard to teach, those who do not want to learn, it would take them from their chosen path...
 
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CherubRam

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That's what Secunda is. It does not support your assertion. It clearly shows that the theophoric prefix was "y(eh)o-". :)
Finding a translated Hebrew document before 200 BC would be a problem. Do you know of any?
 
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CherubRam

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Then it is the opinion of every published Hebrew grammar and everyone who can read and write in Classical Hebrew.

'Ayin is a voiced glottal stop.

It is not a vowel.

To call it a vowel in this context is categorically, unequivocally false.

It does not appear in the Tetragrammaton. (The only letters present there are yod, he [x2], and waw/vav).

These statements are all verifiable, fundamental facts.

Why do you deny fact in order to prop up such obvious fiction? What merit is fiction here? What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
History of the Ancient and Modern Hebrew Language By David Steinberg: History of the Hebrew Language by David Steinberg
 
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pat34lee

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So, you reject Paul's teachings and virtually large portions of the New Testament? You're not being clever or sophisticated, nor are you going deeper into the word. You're perverting the Gospel of Jesus Christ into a judaized works based gospel.

You're citing scripture verses that I'm very well aware of. What are you saying, that scripture contradicts itself? It doesn't. How is what you're saying any different then what the church in Galatia was doing before the Holy Spirit via Paul ripped into them?

I don't reject Paul, but you do reject Jesus' teachings
for a misinterpretation of Paul.

If you would bother to read the articles I linked here
for you, then you wouldn't need to ask. You can read
it for yourself, except I know you won't. You believe
you know it all, so there is no reason to learn.

Until you do, and have actual questions or comments
about them, don't bother responding.
 
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pat34lee

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The last two are both /yehoshua/, not what's listed there.

Then why do we pronounce it Joshua today with
a short ah sound? Popular names are hard to
change, even if you change the language, as they
did by adding the vowels to Hebrew.
 
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gadar perets

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Simply put, Yahshua is the English short form of his name. We know Joshua is a corruption, and that Yah was changed to Jo.
So because some sacred name proponent invented "Yahshua", that makes it a valid short form in English? Can I change it to "Yahsh" and claim it is the new short form in English? On what Biblical or grammatical grounds do you drop the waw?
 
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Meowzltov

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Simply put, Yahshua is the English short form of his name. We know Joshua is a corruption, and that Yah was changed to Jo.
There is no English name Yahshua.
 
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SteveCaruso

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Then why do we pronounce it Joshua today with
a short ah sound? Popular names are hard to
change, even if you change the language, as they
did by adding the vowels to Hebrew.

The form "Joshua" in English came from the Latin form "Iosua" based on the shortened theophoric (Latin, like Greek, could not pronounce ש or ע).

Popular names change the most when going between languages, as different languages have different inventories of possible sounds.
 
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CherubRam

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There is no English name Yahshua.
Yahoshua has been around for more than 2000 year. Yahshuah has been around since the 1500's. Yahshua has been around since 1960's.
The Rabbi's changed the language. What part of "changed" do you not understand?

Jo in Joshua stands for Yah. The Rabbi's started changing the language in 167 BC. Some Hebrew words have been assigned to many vowels.
 
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SteveCaruso

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Yahoshua has been around for more than 2000 year. Yahshuah has been around since the 1500's. Yahshua has been around since 1960's.

Google N-Grams tells a bit of a different story about what the accepted form is.

This shoehorning of the syllable "yah" into places it does not belong only really took off with the beginning of the Sacred Name Movement.

You still have yet to present one iota of evidence outside of insisting that you somehow have special knowledge about a language that you are obliged to admit you cannot read or write in.
 
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CherubRam

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Now, explain how this helps your thesis? :)

There is a reason why there are two forms, and it is an established one.
It shows that Yah was changed to Jah. It also shows Yah endings.
 
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