You have already rejected my answer to this. I'll just give you this answer:
10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.” (
Ga 3:10–12,
Deut 27:26)
Paul directly quotes
Deuteronomy 27:26 from the Septuigant when he says those who place themselves under the law are under the curse. And "the law" referenced in
Deut 27:26 is the law of God given to the Israelites which was anchored by the 10 commandments and was codified on the same day that God made the second copy of the 10 Commandments.
This is a perfect example of what I mean by taking one verse out of the rest of the Bible, then using it to justify a certain religious philosophy. If you would have simply shown the most basic decency, and answered the question I asked of you, we could have had an honest discussion about what it means for a man who sinned, to be under the "Works of the Law" for justification.
"For as many as are
of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them."
Had you simply posted Moses words regarding the instruction for the common man that sinned before the Messiah comes, you would know what Paul is talking about regarding men who rely on, or are "
Of the Law" Moses gave for the forgiveness of sins, or as Paul says "Justification".
If a man is relying on the Laws of Forgiveness that Moses promoted. That is, the LAW of works that I asked you to post from Moses' own words that you refuse to even acknowledge, then this man is cursed, because the blood of animals cannot take away man's transgression of God's Law. As a result,
this man cannot sin, because as it is written, "cursed is the man that Sins", and the blood of animals cannot take away this curse. Only Christ can.
But that all men are in need of forgiveness is evident, as the Scriptures teach, "All man has sinned and falls short of the glory of God."
But the man that relies on the old Priesthood "works" for said forgiveness, he is cursed above all men, because the blood of animals cannot remove sin. Therefore, that man who relies on these works "of the Law" for forgiveness, is obligated to keep every precept of the law, because there is no forgiveness in these sacrifices. And because
he has already sinned, and these sins are not forgiven, he is cursed above all men.
Sadly, you won't answer my question so you either don't know, or refuse to accept, what "Works" Moses promoted, that the Pharisees were still promoting, for the forgiveness of sins.
And you also won't even attempt to answer my other simple question;
" Did Jesus promote these same "works of the Law" in order to be forgiven? Or did HE promote a LAW in which HE, apart from these sacrificial "works", forgave sins?
While I long for honest discussion of scriptures, I tire of men who call Jesus Lord, but who refuse even the simplest and most common of courtesies and decencies of answering simple Biblical Questions.
Not much reason to continue in such discourse. Thanks for the discussion, such as it was.