How does that work? Because the priest stands in Christ's stead and thus needs to be literally male but the rest of the Church, made up of both men and women, are figuratively or mystically female? If I, a laymember of the Church, am part of the mystical Bride of Christ though male why would a priest, who stands in the stead of Christ, can't be female? Why can a male be part of the Bride but a female can't mystically stand in Christ's stead?
Yes, Jews and Gentiles are part of the one Body, the one Church, in Christ; just as the Apostle says that male and female are one in Christ. Yet in spite of the Apostle's comments in Galatians 3:28 or Colossians 3:11 the argument is only men are permitted because Christ and the Apostles were male--they were also all Jewish and so if the unity of men and women in the Church still means clergy must be male then it could be argued also that since Christ and the Apostles were Jews clergy must be Jewish.
Then if spiritual circumcision and being a "spiritual Jew" as part of the one people of God in Christ--the Church--is the essential matter, then why can't a woman stand in Christ's stead, mystically?
This is what I mean about the weaknesses of the arguments.
-CryptoLutheran