Women and the Creed: "For us humans and for our salvation"

archer75

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And like I said, if this were about medicine, or law, or architecture, everyone would admit that a specialist has knowledge that gives them insight that the rest of us have less of. But my experience is that when it comes to education and language, everybody is equally expert, and hardly anyone acknowledges the specialist. It is true that there are a thousand ways to teach and learn things, and everybody, even if only as an amateur, teaches and learns, and everybody speaks a language, and a lot of people learn a second language. But not everybody deals professionally, to earn their bread and butter, with having to understand how language works consciously, in theory as well as practice, and get that across to others or a living. There really are things that the average (even educated) Joe really doesn't know about is own language and how he speaks. He takes it for granted, and hardly knows how to explain it to others who don't know his language.
The first part of this, up through "and hardly anyone acknowledges the specialist" I heartily agree with. This is so true it's ridiculous.

With the last bit I agree with caution. I have allowed myself to think I know at least more than nothing about these matters, but when I'm honest with myself I see that a little morphology and non-English syntax is hardly anything to write home about. The difficulty gets worse as you go down, and i'm pretty sure I don't really understand even the things I understand and can explain well.
 
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archer75

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I don't see why a lack of linguistic awareness contributes to this (as somebody quite aware of linguistics).
It's very likely that you are more aware than I am. But what I meant was something like "a lack of awareness that catgeories such as grammatical gender are neither written in stone nor totally in control of those who speak a language that makes use of them, that such categories (such as gender or animacy or number) certainly can be 'seen through' even by 'untrained' native speakers who are often thought to be in their thrall," that sort of thing.

I see how I could have been clearer. It looked like I might have meant "a lack of knowledge of formal terms used to describe various aspects of natural languages," but I really didn't. See how well I express my thoughts? Genius!
 
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rusmeister

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The first part of this, up through "and hardly anyone acknowledges the specialist" I heartily agree with. This is so true it's ridiculous.

With the last bit I agree with caution. I have allowed myself to think I know at least more than nothing about these matters, but when I'm honest with myself I see that a little morphology and non-English syntax is hardly anything to write home about. The difficulty gets worse as you go down, and i'm pretty sure I don't really understand even the things I understand and can explain well.

Agreed, but as a Chestertonian, I recognize the limits of the specialist, as well, especially the epidemic of specialists extending their authority where it has no business going. But even with the specialist, you have a wide degree of variation. Anybody can identify as a linguist or a philologist; the litmus test is fairly vague. In medicine, we recognize a qualitative difference between the medical intern, the doctor with 5 years of practice and the doctor with 25 with broad experience in both public and private practice, and perhaps administration and dealing with medical malpractice or whatever as well. The first has largely theoretical knowledge, the second some experience behind it, and the third enough to be authoratative when he speaks.

In my own case, I started as a monolingual white boy growing up in the boonies, became a Navy guy living abroad and learning foreign languages. Later I went to college, got degrees in languages, and still later teaching certification, married a Russian, and have lived half of my life abroad now. My own path has been one of learning much of the theory through practice. I know a good deal more than "a little morphology". But it's not about me. It's about whether we would recognize whether anyone at all could have special authority and knowledge in regard to language (or the education system, for that matter). A lot of people evidently don't recognize that; everyone is their own authority; the intern's opinion is as good as the career doctor's.
 
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rusmeister

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I don't see why a lack of linguistic awareness contributes to this (as somebody quite aware of linguistics).
I think it's understandable why most people wouldn't readily see why, gz. Even speaking a second language doesn't necessarily help, especially if you spoke it from childhood and learned it without special, conscious, adult effort. What really helps is having to teach your own language, from scratch, to someone who has no conception at all of it. Having to make clear, for years, to both adults and children, really cures you of taking your own linguistic assumptions for granted.

But conscious learning of a foreign language as an adult can help. I've spoken about the modern misuse of the word "gender" before, as an example. That it IS misused can be tested by looking at other languages. What I have found in all my experience is that they all have a word expressing an objective ontological concept, which is linked to biology and genetics, rather objective things, and a word expressing a more subjective concept linked to social behavior and used arbitrarily in grammar to treat things as if they were (but are not) sexual beings, or things lacking sexual attributes. So the proper word for the former (Italian "sesso", Russian "пол" /pol/) is rendered in English as "sex". The word "gender" is rendered "genere" and "род", respectively.

In English, the misuse began back in 1929, when DH Lawrence ( that great "friend" of Christian morality, coined the term "have sex", the people fell sucker for the slang term, the effect of which was to provide a way to speak about sexual intercourse without referring to it as being integral to marriage. Gradually people began to wrongly associate the word "sex" with an action, rather than a state of being, and kind of like how the "Reformation" did not lead people back to Orthodoxy, people did not come to rejecting the slang, but rather to greater error, treating it as the normative word for the action, and often creating confusion when the word was properly used to refer to the state of being. That's when the intellectual snobs began pushing "gender" as "the new sex", and people, now thoroughly conditioned by public education and the media to accept whatever was given to them, began repeating the error. Now everybody, even venerable Orthodox people, talk like that. But it is and remains error, and this can be tested by simple translation of the terms in other languages.

If you don't know the root philosophical meaning of the words, and the objective nature of the one, and the subjective nature of the other, then of course you won't see how that would affect how we see the phenomena of which we speak. If our sex really IS subjective, as gender has always historically been, both in terms of roles assigned to the sexes, and in grammatical use - how is it that a table can be feminine in French, yet masculine in Russian? - then it follows that people really will begin to see our sex as "fluid", as arbitrary social convention, rather than hard reality that we must accept and live with, as "sex" implies; even if you consciously think it hard reality, the philosophy of the word is going to be undercutting your own understanding, as well as what others hear. That's why we now have the insanities of "gay marriage" and "transgenderism", with a whole army of pseudo-intellectuals ready to write nonsense to give them an air of academic respectability.
 
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prodromos

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There really are things that the average (even educated) Joe really doesn't know about is own language and how he speaks. He takes it for granted, and hardly knows how to explain it to others who don't know his language.
Absolutely! I was employed at a private English school in Greece one year because I was a native speaker. I could correct their essays without any difficulty, but could not for the life of me explain what the error was. My primary worth to the school was conversational English.
 
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I don't see why a lack of linguistic awareness contributes to this (as somebody quite aware of linguistics).


I'd suggest taking a linguistic class at your local university or perhaps a foreign language? I've studied 3 foreign language, I'm fluent in 3. I've also studied linguistics.

I recommend that, especially taking Latin and Greek, as so much of English vocabulary comes from those two languages (the Latin comes more often then not via French, but it's still Latinate in its ultimate origins).

You say you have linguistic awareness, but perhaps it's not to the degree needed to understand this.

Doing this will open up so many worlds for you. I strongly recommend it.
 
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gzt

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It's very likely that you are more aware than I am. But what I meant was something like "a lack of awareness that catgeories such as grammatical gender are neither written in stone nor totally in control of those who speak a language that makes use of them, that such categories (such as gender or animacy or number) certainly can be 'seen through' even by 'untrained' native speakers who are often thought to be in their thrall," that sort of thing.

I see how I could have been clearer. It looked like I might have meant "a lack of knowledge of formal terms used to describe various aspects of natural languages," but I really didn't. See how well I express my thoughts? Genius!
Certainly. The thing I'm having trouble understanding here - and partly because people are not completing the arguments they are making - is that they are engaging in a very much more prescriptivist philosophy of language than I've encountered in either modern language learning or linguistics - from my decidedly non-expert point of view, but one informed by people with PhDs in the relevant subjects. In arguments here and elsewhere, I'm encountering people arguing that you have to go back to PIE word roots to determine the "real" meaning of "man" or ἄνθρωπος, that contemporary usage of the term "man" is irrelevant because of its history, that we essentially import all usages and meanings of a term when it is used, etc. These are quite simply false and contrary to any reasonable education in the liberal arts. So we come to a simple argument: the context of the original Greek text indicates that the terms used should be generic, and in contemporary English usage the most reasonable generic term is probably going to be "human", since a fair number of people see the usage of "man" as a generic term as archaic and implicitly gendered. I don't see how cracking open Smyth and refreshing my Greek grammar is supposed to enlighten me otherwise.

EDIT: corrected "Smythe" to "Smyth"
 
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archer75

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Certainly. The thing I'm having trouble understanding here - and partly because people are not completing the arguments they are making - is that they are engaging in a very much more prescriptivist philosophy of language than I've encountered in either modern language learning or linguistics - from my decidedly non-expert point of view, but one informed by people with PhDs in the relevant subjects. In arguments here and elsewhere, I'm encountering people arguing that you have to go back to PIE word roots to determine the "real" meaning of "man" or ἄνθρωπος, that contemporary usage of the term "man" is irrelevant because of its history, that we essentially import all usages and meanings of a term when it is used, etc. These are quite simply false and contrary to any reasonable education in the liberal arts. So we come to a simple argument: the context of the original Greek text indicates that the terms used should be generic, and in contemporary English usage the most reasonable generic term is probably going to be "human", since a fair number of people see the usage of "man" as a generic term as archaic and implicitly gendered. I don't see how cracking open Smyth and refreshing my Greek grammar is supposed to enlighten me otherwise.

EDIT: corrected "Smythe" to "Smyth"
Oh, for sure (by that I mean I agree when you complain of people claiming a reconstructed sense thousands of years old needs to be considered). Well, first, let me say that when I said "all this" craziness surrounding apparently gendered terms, pronouns, etc, I didn't mean your post or posts, but the "crazy stuff" that has been on the edge of the thread (or so I thought).

As I said much earlier on the thread, I still agree with you that this is a legitimate question. I'd tend to say no, it shouldn't be changed in this instance, but talking about it is legit and even necessary.

About language stuff, I don't see that breaking out the Greek materials and grammars is super needed here, either.

What I think could be summed up in this way:

-we use various registers of English (or whatever language) all the time
-usage and sense change somewhat from register to register. There aren't always perfect equivalents.
-in this instance, "man" (singular, zero article) functions as an old-fashioned / high-style near-synonym for "human", but without the connotation of "human as opposed to animal or alien."

So you have to click into a non-kitchen register, but you get specificity without bringing up the "animal / alien" business. As said by others, I don't think anyone seriously thinks this means "for male persons."
 
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gzt

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When it comes to differentiating register, you can do so even without going archaic - I mean, using a phrase like "becoming human" is not at all the sort of thing people talk about in the kitchen. It sounds technical and foreign, which demarcates it from everyday speech.
 
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archer75

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When it comes to differentiating register, you can do so even without going archaic - I mean, using a phrase like "becoming human" is not at all the sort of thing people talk about in the kitchen. It sounds technical and foreign, which demarcates it from everyday speech.
I suppose that's true, but I still think "human" should be avoided because it sounds like the humanity stands in opposition to extraterrestrialness or non-human-animalness.

If the text were "became A man," I would definitely support changing it, because with the article it unambiguously means "a male human."
 
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gzt

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In "became human", it's a natural comparison to God (as one notes that anthropos is used to distinguish from gods or beasts) - the point here is that God is becoming a human: WOW. I don't think terms like "became human" are really all that weird - I mean, Fr John Behr wrote a book with the title "Becoming Human" and nobody batted an eye. In "for us humans...", it is true, it sounds a little stilted at the moment. I do think your opposition here is somewhat reasonable - inertia is hard to overcome so a serviceable but slightly inaccurate text needs a pretty good argument to replace it and this may not clear the bar. But we don't need to start getting into conspiracy theories about feminist activists or anything.
 
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archer75

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In "became human", it's a natural comparison to God (as one notes that anthropos is used to distinguish from gods or beasts) - the point here is that God is becoming a human: WOW. I don't think terms like "became human" are really all that weird - I mean, Fr John Behr wrote a book with the title "Becoming Human" and nobody batted an eye. In "for us humans...", it is true, it sounds a little stilted at the moment. I do think your opposition here is somewhat reasonable - inertia is hard to overcome so a serviceable but slightly inaccurate text needs a pretty good argument to replace it and this may not clear the bar. But we don't need to start getting into conspiracy theories about feminist activists or anything.
Thanks for saying it's at least somewhat reasonable (I was starting to wonder)!

No, we don't need to get into conspiracy theories, but I was referring mostly to wacky behavior without reference to feminism or conspiracy theories - but I think that stuff would take us seriously off-topic.
 
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rusmeister

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Certainly. The thing I'm having trouble understanding here - and partly because people are not completing the arguments they are making - is that they are engaging in a very much more prescriptivist philosophy of language than I've encountered in either modern language learning or linguistics - from my decidedly non-expert point of view, but one informed by people with PhDs in the relevant subjects. In arguments here and elsewhere, I'm encountering people arguing that you have to go back to PIE word roots to determine the "real" meaning of "man" or ἄνθρωπος, that contemporary usage of the term "man" is irrelevant because of its history, that we essentially import all usages and meanings of a term when it is used, etc. These are quite simply false and contrary to any reasonable education in the liberal arts. So we come to a simple argument: the context of the original Greek text indicates that the terms used should be generic, and in contemporary English usage the most reasonable generic term is probably going to be "human", since a fair number of people see the usage of "man" as a generic term as archaic and implicitly gendered. I don't see how cracking open Smyth and refreshing my Greek grammar is supposed to enlighten me otherwise.

EDIT: corrected "Smythe" to "Smyth"
Hi, gz,
Maybe this will help: What academics call "descriptive language" only describes what people do say, rightly or wrongly. If Germans tell immigrants "Arbeit macht frei", or we speak of "ethnic cleansing", as if some kind of detergent was being used to wash everyone, this may be how people actually speak, but it is not truthful. It is linguistic deception.

Prescriptive language, on the other hand, says how people OUGHT to talk. It establishes conventions that aid common understanding, rather than approve of euphemisms that inhibit it. I teach Russians English, and let me tell you that if you walk into an ESL class outside of an English-speaking country (where, as immigrants, the learners can learn from the world outside even when the teaching is bad, as it often is), you will not achieve much if you try to teach using "descriptive" language approaches. In order to build clear language commonly understand, you NEED prescription. Good English is not already in your head; it needs to be put in their by parents and teachers. You must deal with convention, and in order to be able to communicate throuout time as well as space, you need stable convention, that doesn't change every other week with the latest slang fads and hipster expressions.

As to PhD's, I have met them, and found them to be quite mortal and fallible. One Literature textbook I have, written by three such animals, had footnoted the word "Gadzooks!" and the wise PhD had written underneath "Word of unknown origin". Only I, a mere MA, KNEW the origin of the word as "God's Hooks", a reference to the nails used to nail Christ to the Cross, thus making it a religious blasphemy to use in vain. I have read a rather standard textbook, given to me by my best friend from childhood, a philosophy major, and written by two philosophy PhDs )"An Introduction to Philosophy" (1940 or so), and thanks to my own sometimes-maligned teachers (Lewis and Chesterton) I was able to see through their efforts to pretend that they were being neutral with ease. Even their section n Christianity had commentary by two... atheists. This is what PhDs offer us and our faith. So many have been formed by educations that in their essence were and are anti-Christ and anti-Faith, that even the believers wind up with cognitive dissonance between what they believe and what their programs taught them and they now teach others. That's not saying "everybody", but given the predominance of public school and public education (and not only) in the life of the nation, it is safe to say that it is the majority.

I am a language teacher. I have, and have to have, a really darn good understanding of words, if I want to feed my family. I don't work for a state institution that doesn't care what I do; I am answerable to my students or their parents, and if what I do doesn't work, my reputation will go down the drain and I will lose my business. People need to leave my lessons and really be able to understand and communicate in real time. And I know that words have multiple meanings - BUT -those meanings are tied to a common root understanding. I understand clearly that "virtue" does NOT mean "manliness", or "strength", or "courage", though in Latin it did, but I can clearly see a link between the concepts of virtue and courage; I can see a thread that has not been lost. And I can see different meanings in the word "man" that are related, and need not be confused.

So I come back to the question, who exactly do you think misunderstands the use of "man" in our Scriptural and Liturgical context? Who thinks that "for us men and for our salvation" means "not women"? Why do you advocate for change when for hundreds of years no one has seen the need for any change, not even the Orthodox who translated texts into English? Change because "it seems good to you", or even an improvement, is a terrible concept, and not what Orthodox generally do. Change of anything is only made when a real problem arises. There IS no real problem here. Nobody misunderstands what the word "man" means in that context. There is no clear and pressing need to change it.

And there IS a reason to resist change, aside from the general Orthodox resistance to change. It is the predominance of feminism, which, in confusing equality with identicality, seeks to overturn all tradition, big T and small. And if they can find unsuspecting allies within the Church to help them do that, so much the better (for their cause, not for the Church). If this were a time of real (as opposed to imaginary) oppression of women, if wifebeating were the norm in every household, if women were sold in chains on the markets, then we would need to specially emphasize their general equality as God's co-equal creation to man; WE would need to shout about their equality from the rooftops. But in times that seek to exaggerate that equality and even turn the tables, that exaggeration, and the linguistic efforts used to underline it, should be resisted, and the differences of the sexes emphasized.
 
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archer75

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I'm a little surprised to hear @gzt and @rusmeister talking about this in terms of descriptivism and prescriptivism. I don't think I've heard those terms used to describe preferences / desires / belief in accuracy or appropriateness of a given word or form in a given instance in such a restricted context. It's not as if linguists or English teachers (whether as a first or foreign language) in general even have an opinion on this, as far as I know.

@rusmeister, I do think we live in an time in which mistreatment of women is very common, though a good number of the things presented as evidence for that don't seem to me to be evidence of it (and some that aren't presented as evidence seem to me to be evidence, so oh well). And of mistreatment of men and children...but I suppose that's beside the point.

When did the Creed even start being used liturgically in English? 16th century, right? At that time, there was surely a much stronger sense of "man" / "men" as (more or less) "human" in this context. And that usage has passed down to this day, I assume, in most English translations of the Creed used by various denominations. Fresh translations are made, verbal endings are changed, vocab gets swapped out, but that has remained...and probably not as a slight to women and girls, I'd guess, but because there really isn't a better choice to dredge up out of the possibilities of English.

Now, you might say "even if it was never intended as such, it seems so even if it's really just an artifact from older usage," and that's reasonable, although I still think it doesn't make the cut for needing change - after all, maintaining liturgical language as much as possible helps people to feel connected to those who have prayed and confessed the faith using these words in centuries past (and I don't think that's the same as insisting on a universal liturgical language that most of the faithful don't understand).
 
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archer75

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Huh, I see the ELLC version has "For us and for our salvation, he came down from heaven, was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary and became truly human."

Now, we've talked about "became human" here, but I can't say I dig "for us [noun omitted]". Poor "τοὺς ἀνθρώπους"!
 
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rusmeister

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I'm a little surprised to hear @gzt and @rusmeister talking about this in terms of descriptivism and prescriptivism. I don't think I've heard those terms used to describe preferences / desires / belief in accuracy or appropriateness of a given word or form in a given instance in such a restricted context. It's not as if linguists or English teachers (whether as a first or foreign language) in general even have an opinion on this, as far as I know.
Well, personally, I don't place much value on those labels, I see them as more pretentious ways of talking about language, the kind of terms academics make up to justify their paychecks. That's why I translated the terms into clear English: how we do speak vs how we ought to speak.


@rusmeister, I do think we live in an time in which mistreatment of women is very common, though a good number of the things presented as evidence for that don't seem to me to be evidence of it (and some that aren't presented as evidence seem to me to be evidence, so oh well). And of mistreatment of men and children...but I suppose that's beside the point.

Well, all times are times of mistreatment of men, women and children. In the West, women enjoy unprecedented public power; traditionally, their power was in the private square, the home, not the public square. There has never been a period in history in which women have been able to push men aside and replace them by playing a special card called "sexism" (such accusative "-ism" terms tend to be practiced in fact by those that use them; the pot calling the kettle, and sometimes even the bed linen, black).

But as I said, we live in a time when the people promoting the modern feminist idea of the perennial special oppression of women do so in order to overturn all existing social order. The most recent incarnation of "Wonder Woman" is kind of a case in point - the 'strong, independent woman that doesn't really need a man' writ large. They are attacking tradition in general, and most especially Holy Tradition. We Orthodox have never needed it. We have always had the Theokokos to remind us who the greatest human who is not actually God was in history, we do not need the screaming claims of feminine oppression and a need to oppress men in order to "compensate". We have always honored women, as well as men, and better than anyone understand our ontological equality that is absolutely not identicality. We can tell the difference. That is why, for example, it turns out to be practically useful in our time that, in church, men should uncover and women should cover. The"small "t" tradition turns out to be to our benefit, and rebelling against it the mark of modern feminism against both tradition and Tradition.

When did the Creed even start being used liturgically in English? 16th century, right? At that time, there was surely a much stronger sense of "man" / "men" as (more or less) "human" in this context. And that usage has passed down to this day, I assume, in most English translations of the Creed used by various denominations. Fresh translations are made, verbal endings are changed, vocab gets swapped out, but that has remained...and probably not as a slight to women and girls, I'd guess, but because there really isn't a better choice to dredge up out of the possibilities of English.

Now, you might say "even if it was never intended as such, it seems so even if it's really just an artifact from older usage," and that's reasonable, although I still think it doesn't make the cut for needing change - after all, maintaining liturgical language as much as possible helps people to feel connected to those who have prayed and confessed the faith using these words in centuries past (and I don't think that's the same as insisting on a universal liturgical language that most of the faithful don't understand).
No argument here. Well said.
 
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