Yes, this is a very common tactic among Catholics: no matter what verse of scripture one presents, just dismiss it by saying, "Well, that's just your interpretation", even if no interpretation was offered. And then, after saying "that's just your interpretation", refuse to explain why you believe the interpretation is wrong or what you believe the correct interpretation to be.
Am not sure calling this "my" or "your" interpretation is accurate and certainly not what I wrote. Yes, I hold the view but so have thousands of years of people, so it is more proper to call it the Church's. I find it not particularly helpful to personalize the discussion either.
The counter point was made that scripture forbids our asking Saints to pray for us, to intercede. When asked for specific reference verses were then referenced. Obviously our individual understanding of those scriptures would have to be different, otherwise there would be conflict between our understanding of scripture and this practice. That is not the case. And as we differ and both have the same verses, I find it rather unproductive to focus there.
Setting those differences aside, I simply pointed out the it would not be possible for early Christians, especially with predominately Jewish leadership quite familiar with those same verses to have people asking martyrs to pray for them if their understanding of those verses matched those opposed to this practice today.
That way, you can believe whatever you want to and any scriptural challenge to your beliefs is just another subjective opinion that you can ignore.
Am not ignoring it, simply think it is rather an obvious no brainer that we do NOT agree on what those verses mean in regards/or as it applies to asking Saints to pray for us.
Or, you can consider what the scriptures say and base your beliefs upon them.
This suggests Catholics do not consider what scriptures say and do not base our beliefs on them. Which besides being untrue and baiting, it goes off topic.
It's interesting that you dismiss these verses by saying that "it's just someone's interpretation", when no one offered an interpretation.
How could asking in what reasonable world Saint John could allow his flock to ask martyrs to pray for them IF Saint John understood those scriptures as forbidding that practice be looked at as dismissive?
I'm curious: do you apply this unique hermeneutic to other areas of life, as well? I mean, if you get a ticket for running a STOP sign, do you go to court and tell the judge, "Well, Your Honor, sure, you say the sign says 'STOP', but isn't that really just your interpretation"?
Maybe I should tell the judge that less than 30 years after the law was established and taught, it was completely corrupted and from that point on no lawyer or judge had any "first hand knowledge" and that all I have to do is read the law and I know myself what it means.
Then the early Church was wrong.
Then we would have to assume Saint John knew this and would have corrected this "error" that had "immediately moved in". Instead he depicts something in his vision which, no matter what one believes it shows, would be supportive of people holding this "error" rather than correcting them.
Then you should have no problem showing us where in the Bible or the Didache we're told that it's permissible to pray to the dead.
The point was that they were doing the very thing being claimed here as wrong according to scripture AND YET they knew these scriptures as Jews first and then Christians, yet are still asking for the prayers of martyrs in Heaven to intercede on their behalf to the Lord. That would make no sense at all if they understood those scriptures as forbidding those prayers.
What's to explain? If they violated the Biblical prohibition of praying to the dead, then they were wrong. Scripture is always the standard, not what other men do or believe.
Except we have the Apostles not only not "correcting" something already being done, but Saint John if not depicting it being done in his vision, depicting what would represent it to those already doing it. Furthermore they are not just doing it, they are doing as part of their regular worship (as we still do at every Mass today).
So, if it is not "phrased in that matter", how do you know that's what it says? All it says is that the prayer of a righteous man availeth much. It doesn't say that the dead in Heaven are any more righteous or that one's righteousness (which, as we all know is really not our righteousness but Christ's righteousness imputed to us) makes a prayer any more or less efficacious.
It is simple really. No one is claiming that ONLY the prayers of the righteous are efficacious, clearly God can answer the prayers of any one. But "availeth much" does mean if one had a choice of Prayer Warriors, a righteous person would be a good one to have on your team.
And yes we could say some very righteous people have walked among us. But certainly those in Heaven just by their presence there are undoubtedly righteous. So without question those in Heaven would make great Prayer Warriors because without question their prayers would "availeth much".
How do you know they're "most righteous"? How do you know they're righeous at all, when Jesus very clearly said that no one is righteous but God alone (Mark 10:18)?
Because they are in Heaven and a person could not be there and not be righteous. The unrighteous have a different destination.
So, let me try to understand your reasoning: a verse that says "don't pray to the dead" is "just someone's interpretation", while we should take your word that verses that "are not phrased in that matter" and "seem to" shoud be taken at face value?
No my logic was that the early Church asking martyrs to intercede with the Lord on their behalf during their regular worship would not be able to do that if the Apostles and the predominately Jewish leadership immediately replacing them (and who undoubtedly were leading some of these worship prayers when in attendance) understood those OT verses as meaning "don't pray to the dead" and applied that to asking martyrs for something.
If the Apostles and the leadership they installed thought those verses applied to asking the martyrs to put in a good word for us, how could they participate and sanction those prayers in worship?