WHY THE LORD'S DAY IS NOT SATURDAY

[HIM]

Depends on the Greek 1722: ἐν context that determines its application. In the case of Romans 3:19 the reference "in" or "under" is to the law but within scripture and chapter context the application is to the whole world becoming guilty before God of breaking the law (sin) *Romans 3:9-20. Paul stating why in v20 that the role of the law is to give us a knowledge of what sin is.

I thought you might see what we were alluding to.
The context surrounding 3:19 in Romans would dictate that εν τω νομω should be understood that the Jews were interested, that their main focus was the Law. The fact that the clause is in the Dative Case would allow for the following translation.
Rom 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are INTO the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.

Interestingly Paul uses the phrase "υπο νομον", under Law in Romans twice in chapter 6.

Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Rom 6:15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Your words

I said no such thing. Please do not pretend that I have

 

[LoveGodsWord]

1. Where is the explicit reference to "the Lord's Day"?
2. Do you know what explicit means?

The scriptures have been provided already here and here. All your doing is trying to deny them. Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope

 

[DamianWarS]

I said no such thing. Please do not pretend that I have

Then honor my request and stop misrepresenting my words

 

[DamianWarS]

The scriptures have been provided already here and here. All your doing is trying to deny them. Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope

Those are interpretive references not explicit references

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Those are interpretive references not explicit references

No interpretation needed as the scriptures speak for themselves. God's Word (not mine) says Jesus is the Lord of the Sabbath day (not me) in Matthew 12:8 and it is God that claims ownership on the Sabbath day (not me) *Genesis 2:1-3; Mark 2:27; Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13; Leviticus 19:3; Exodus 31:13. The Greek words used for "the Lords day" (κυριακή ημέρα) in Revelation 1:10 mean the Lord's ownership of the day. These are all God's Words dear friend not mine. Now these are God's Words not mine that your disagreeing with your words that are not God's so your argument is therefore with God not me. Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope

 

[Albion]

Sure they are explicit scriptures. Others did not seem to have problems understanding them from post # 1 here.

You are the one arguing for words instead of ideas, yet in this case you are trying to pass off as "explicit" a recognition that something else is similar in one way or another. Your claim is, therefore, in error.

I notice that, when challenged, you backtracked on what you'd written by changing "all the scripture references provided to you were explicit" to "Sure they are explicit scriptures," but that only amounts to an admission that Damian was right.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

You are the one arguing for words instead of ideas, yet in this case you are trying to pass off as "explicit" a recognition that something else is similar in one way or another. Your claim is, therefore, in error.

I notice that, when challenged, you backtracked on what you'd written by changing "all the scripture references provided to you were explicit" to "Sure they are explicit scriptures," but that only amounts to an admission that Damian was right.

Nonsense. It is God's Word not my words that say Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath day not me (Matthew 12:8; Mark 2:28) and it is God that claims ownership on the Sabbath day (not me) in Genesis 2:1-3; Mark 2:27; Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13; Leviticus 19:3; Exodus 31:13. The Greek words used for "the Lords day" (κυριακή ημέρα) in Revelation 1:10 mean the Lord's ownership of the day. These are all God's Words dear friend not mine. Now these are God's Words not mine that your in disagreement with your words that are not God's. You disagree with these scriptures because they do not agree with your tradition. Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope

 

[Albion]

Nonsense. It is God's Word not my words that say Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath day not me

LOL We have been discussing "The Lord's Day," NOT "Lord of the Sabbath."

 

[LoveGodsWord]

LOL We have been discussing "The Lord's Day," NOT "Lord of the Sabbath."

Exactly, what do you think the meaning of κυριακή ημέρα is in Revelation 1:10? You might start by reading the rest of the post and the scriptures you are quoting from that your micro quoting which ties all the scriptures in together that disagrees with you before laughing .

 

[Albion]

Exactly, what do you think the meaning of κυριακή ημέρα is in Revelation 1:10?

As has already been pointed out to you more than once, you cannot insist upon an exact wording at one moment but then advocate for "close enough" at another time.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

As has already been pointed out to you more than once, you cannot insist upon an exact wording at one moment and then switch to arguing that "close enough" is your position.

I did not need to. God's Word makes its own argument. I just posted the scriptures here and here. . They are God's Words not mine. If you disagree your welcome to prove your tradition from the scriptures. Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope. This is because it is a man-made teaching and tradition that is not biblical.

 

[Albion]

I did not need to.

Probably not.

However, that is what has happened.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Probably not.

However, that is what has happened.

Micro-quoting is a misrepresentation of what is said taken from context. I see a few people like this practice here at CF as they leave out the supporting scriptures from the posts they are responding to that disagree with them.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

No interpretation needed as the scriptures speak for themselves. God's Word (not mine) says Jesus is the Lord of the Sabbath day (not me) *Matthew 12:8 and it is God that claims ownership on the Sabbath day (not me) *Genesis 2:1-3; Mark 2:27; Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13; Leviticus 19:3; Exodus 31:13. The Greek words used for "the Lords day" (κυριακή ημέρα) in Revelation 1:10 mean the Lord's ownership of the day. These are all God's Words dear friend not mine. Now what is it you disagree with here? Now can you prove Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures? - Nope

This seems like it should be common sense because God only defined one day in the entire Bible that was His Holy Sabbath. People labeling another day “The Lords Day” does not make it such. If its not really the Lords Sabbath, what does that day represent and to whom? The Roman Catholic Church claim when people go to church on Sunday they are obeying a commandment of the Catholic Church, not God’s commandment. People should at least be aware whose commandment they are obeying. No one has provided scripture where God said any other day was Holy and His Sabbath except the seventh day. How could Sunday be the Lords day when it is not on a day God deemed Holy? Nor did He ever claim that day to be anything but a day to do our work and labor. Seems like an easy answer for me, but apparently its not that way for a lot of people.

 

[Albion]

Micro-quoting is a misrepresentation of what is said taken from context. I see a few people like this practice as they leave out the supporting scriptures from the posts they are responding to that disagree with them.

But "context" is what you've been arguing against from the start!

 

[LoveGodsWord]

This seems like it should be common sense because God only defined one day in the entire Bible that was His Holy Sabbath. People labeling another day “The Lords Day” does not make it such. If its not really the Lords Sabbath, what does that day represent and to whom? The Roman Catholic Church claim when people go to church on Sunday they are obeying a commandment of the Catholic Church, not God’s commandment. People should at least understand whose commandment they are obeying. No one has provided scripture where God said any other day was Holy and His Sabbath except the seventh day. How could the Sunday Lords day not be on a day God deemed Holy? Seems like an easy answer for me, but apparently its not that way for a lot of people.

Very true imge! It seems many would rather follow tradition than the scriptures. Of course we are all free to believe and follow what we want. We do not stand in judgement as we only share God's Words that are not our words but God's but one thing is true, ignoring God's Word does not make them disappear. According to the God's Word the very scriptures we accept or reject become our judge come judgement day *John 12:47-48.

God bless

 

[LoveGodsWord]

But "context" is what you've been arguing against from the start!

Correction, context is what I am arguing for.

 

[Albion]

So you cannot see it? Not even when it's brought up to you? If context mattered, there would be no reason at all for arguing against "the Lord's Day."

Anyway, this explains the matter pretty well (and with Scriptures):

What is the Lord’s day? | GotQuestions.org

 

[LoveGodsWord]

So you cannot see it? Not even when it's brought up to you? If context mattered, there would be no reason at all for arguing against "the Lord's Day."

Here is where your mistaken. No one is arguing against "the Lord's day". What we are arguing against is the application to "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 as being Sunday or the first day of the week as being biblical. Did you find your scriptures yet?