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Well, we do know what his name would have been in Hebrew. Joshua is the direct equivalence of Iēsous, which would be Yah-shua (not Yeshua). Frankly, I don't think it matters that much.
I am curious, what if we translated everywhere Jesus is to be Joshua, that would be weird!
This question is based mainly by comparing it with Hebrew.
Even though Greek was the main language used in the Christian world in the age of the Apostles and the Early Church, the language of the New Testament, and the Septuagint, a lot of people still use Hebrew. I don't see anyone calling Jesus "Iesous" like they call him Yeshua, even those guys say it is evil to say it in that language
I don't see anyone calling God "Theos" or "Kyrios" neither.
So, I am curious why that preference of Hebrew, which wasn't even spoken as a native language but Arameic
Biblical Hebrew has a tiny vocabulary and would be wholly unsuitable for use as a modern spoken language. It is not pure. It is not better than Greek. It is not more holy. And it is not the language spoken by Adam and Eve. Those are all imaginary things that people have attributed to Hebrew for no good reason. And it certainly is not the language spoken in heaven.
It's a different English. What we speak today is not "more pure" or "less pure."
And, of course, in the NT, the Joshua of the OT is given the name Iēsous too, which can cause confusion.
Not seemed, I certainly am doing so.Well, yes, but you seemed to be downplaying the great importance of that -- an importance which means that all pastors should learn Greek.
You know, I actually wanted to start doing that just for fun and see the reaction of people.
"You shall agape the Kyrios your Theos with all of your heart, and with..."
Is God's name revealed in any other language other than Hebrew?Oy vey! Some of the people making arguments about language in this thread could use a few linguistics courses.
I wouldn't think so, unless you really don't know anything at all.
Is God's name revealed in any other language other than Hebrew?
Ah, disagree.God revealed a name to the Israelites (in Hebrew).
It's not God's only name.
καὶ ἀγαπήσεις Κύριον τὸν Θεόν σου ἐξ ὅλης τῆς καρδίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ψυχῆς σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς διανοίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ἰσχύος σου. αὕτη πρώτη ἐντολὴ
Hebrews 4:8 (KJV, and similarly DRV): For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
Hebrews 4:8 (ESV, and similarly ASV, CSB, NAB, NASB, NIV, NKJV, NLT, RSV, etc.): For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.
Besides, you quoted only one verse in the NT, because that's its only reference to the successor of Moses.
Yes. In English as JehovahIs God's name revealed in any other language other than Hebrew?
No. Jesus is the name above all names.Is God's name the purest of all names?
And if God's name is the purest of all names, and cannot and should not be translated into another language, wouldn't that make Hebrew a pure language?
See folks, philosophy is fun.
Did she ask for a book with translation?
Some use it when talking to other Jews which I find it fine, but it can get a little annoying when doing it with other Gentiles. Especially since it involves demonization of the English name Jesus.
I don't think Egypt would've taken to Christianity as it did had it not passed through the medium of Greek, which had long been the language of prestige among the elite at Alexandria, where St. Mark first preached.
Well, tbh, I think that's the only place of real confusion. Joshua also gets a mention in Acts of the Apostles 7:45, but that's not ambiguous.
One reason why there isn't more confusion, of course, is that much of the NT refers to Jesus Christ.
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